Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire.

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2024-05-02, 11:28:22
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Author Topic: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. (Read 9072 times)

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #25 on: 2021-05-05, 08:59:28 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	Why think that the output signal would be a consequence of a significant but doubtful variation of the magnetic wire or strip permeability with the current, when the simplest explanation is the capacitive coupling between the coil and the strip? Was the experiment done with a shielded strip? --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

Centraflow	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #26 on: 2021-05-05, 12:28:30 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 2838	If any coupling is 90º, perpendicular, between any two conducting materials then the coupling is, IMO, capacitive as F6FLT has stated. Regards Mike --------------------------- "All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860 As a general rule, the most successful person in life is the person that has the best information.

Reiyuki	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #27 on: 2021-05-05, 22:14:54 »
Group: Mad Scientist Full Member Posts: 185	Quote from: F6FLT on 2021-05-05, 08:59:28 Why think that the output signal would be a consequence of a significant but doubtful variation of the magnetic wire or strip permeability with the current, when the simplest explanation is the capacitive coupling between the coil and the strip? Was the experiment done with a shielded strip? Quote from: Centraflow on 2021-05-05, 12:28:30 If any coupling is 90º, perpendicular, between any two conducting materials then the coupling is, IMO, capacitive as F6FLT has stated. Capacitive coupling is a good question, and thankfully it is just as easy to test as the original experiment. The first-post experiment was re-created, except with an additional layer of aluminum foil between the nickel strip 'core' and the copper magnet wire helix (galvanically isolated of course). There was no detectable change in response when the shield was left floating or grounded to any other component in the circuit. Physical earth ground was also used to confirm this. ------------------------ Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. ElectrostaticShielding.jpg (205.93 kB, 800x559 - viewed 992 times.) « Last Edit: 2021-05-06, 02:08:55 by Reiyuki » --------------------------- When you say something is impossible, you have made it impossible

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #28 on: 2021-05-06, 08:45:50 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	Hi Reiyuki, This was the right thing to do, but there is always a possible loophole when shielding, because the shielding is also capacitively coupled to the circuit. So you have to connect each end of the shield to the ground with the shortest possible connections, as on the attached diagram which is the one you provided and which I modified. Is this what you did? Only after this test, if the measured levels are always of the same order of magnitude, we can be sure of a magnetic effect. ------------------------ Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. VerySimplePulseDriverShielded.png (45.45 kB, 674x318 - viewed 924 times.) --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

Reiyuki	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #29 on: 2021-05-07, 01:50:09 »
Group: Mad Scientist Full Member Posts: 185	Quote from: F6FLT on 2021-05-06, 08:45:50 This was the right thing to do, but there is always a possible loophole when shielding, because the shielding is also capacitively coupled to the circuit. So you have to connect each end of the shield to the ground with the shortest possible connections, as on the attached diagram which is the one you provided and which I modified. Is this what you did? Only after this test, if the measured levels are always of the same order of magnitude, we can be sure of a magnetic effect. There is a slightly diminished output when both shielded ends are shorted, but that is more likely caused by magnetic induction of the foil rather than electrostatic. A ground-loop. To an extent you can often 'feel' electrostatic vs magnetic effects on a bench circuit, as small things like lead positioning or moving your hands usually has a noticeable impact on output. Another way to confirm predominantly magnetic action is with a partial ferrite core placed near the ferromagnetic wire, which results in a significant output as well (see attached). ------------------------ Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. MagneticPickup.jpg (407.97 kB, 800x1008 - viewed 884 times.) --------------------------- When you say something is impossible, you have made it impossible

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #30 on: 2021-05-07, 10:20:32 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	The decreased output is probably due to the fact that the shield is a shorted loop, magnetically coupled to the line, so it acts as a secondary winding of a shorted transformer, weakening the signal in the primary, i.e. the line. To know if there is a real effect linked to the fact that the line is ferromagnetic, it is to replace it by a non-magnetic Cu or Al line, as suggested by Poynt99, and see if the difference is significant. Classical electromagnetism tells us that there will be very little difference, because the ferromagnetic material here is not a core in the center of the winding but along the conductor, which it is. If the difference is significant, then there is indeed more to investigate. --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

Smudge	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #31 on: 2021-06-15, 15:33:30 »
Group: Professor Hero Member Posts: 1861	One possibility for the induction being considered here is the conduction electrons being spin-polarized and being dragged along the Fe wire by a magnetic field gradient. I have crudely modified the image posted in reply #12 to illustrate this. Here the coil is not uniformly wound on the wire but the turns are bunched up towards one end to create non-uniform field. The FE wire terminates just inside the coil where it is connected to Cu wire where the electrons lose their spin alignment and don't get a reverse force where the gradient reverses direction as the wire leaves the coil. For a gradient field that changes magnitude by 1 Tesla along its length the expected voltage is only 5uV, so a pretty small affect, but maybe worth exploring. Unlike inductive or capacitive effects the voltage is not a function of frequency and can exist even at DC. Smudge ------------------------ Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. Gradient field induction.JPG (32.79 kB, 622x339 - viewed 803 times.)

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #32 on: 2021-06-17, 15:25:07 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	Quote from: Smudge on 2021-06-15, 15:33:30 One possibility for the induction being considered here is the conduction electrons being spin-polarized and being dragged along the Fe wire by a magnetic field gradient. ... If this works in AC, it should also work in DC. The wire could then be placed above a cylindrical permanent magnet, collinear with the axis of the magnet, so that we would have the field gradient due to a greater distance to the magnet for one end of the wire than for the other. We could easily measure a current of 5 µV because it is now a direct current. But why would electrons of opposite spin go in the same direction? --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

Smudge	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #33 on: 2021-06-19, 15:06:22 »
Group: Professor Hero Member Posts: 1861	Quote from: F6FLT on 2021-06-17, 15:25:07 If this works in AC, it should also work in DC. The wire could then be placed above a cylindrical permanent magnet, collinear with the axis of the magnet, so that we would have the field gradient due to a greater distance to the magnet for one end of the wire than for the other. Agreed, and I did say DC. Quote We could easily measure a current of 5 µV because it is now a direct current. I would agree for a current of 5µA, but this is a voltage not a current. As such it is pretty useless as a power source unless we have circuits using superconductors. And with DC, detecting 5µV is difficult on oscilloscopes unless you have additional amplification. Itsu has a 1,000 times DC amplifier built by Graham Gunderson for me, then passed to him via Grumage, and that would enable anyone to see that 5µV DC. Quote But why would electrons of opposite spin go in the same direction? I did say spin polarized electrons and in the world of spintronics that means spins aligned with a magnetic field, so it depends on the degree of spin-polarization. At a field that reaches 1 Tesla the spin-polarization would be high, meaning a greater proportion of positive spin than negative spin. My 5µV was base on 100% polarization, and I should have said that. Smudge

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #34 on: 2021-06-22, 08:10:26 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	Hi Smudge I mistakenly used the word "current" instead of "voltage" I was thinking of. I have a HP3468A multi-meter, and the 5µV is at the limit of what it can do, but still visible. On the oscilloscope, it's unlikely that you'll be able to read anything correct. In fact I think it unlikely that we would have a DC current, which would be a proof of perpetual motion without us knowing where the energy comes from. I think that at the end of the iron wire where the field is strongest, we have a gradient opposite to the one established along the wire. This inverse gradient is over a very short distance, at the end of the wire, at the point where it meets the copper wire. At the end of the iron wire, in fact, the field lines spread out again since the wire is no longer there to channel them. The opposite effect of the two reverse gradients will prevent any current. --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

Smudge	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #35 on: 2021-06-23, 09:47:40 »
Group: Professor Hero Member Posts: 1861	Quote from: F6FLT on 2021-06-22, 08:10:26 Hi Smudge I mistakenly used the word "current" instead of "voltage" I was thinking of. I have a HP3468A multi-meter, and the 5µV is at the limit of what it can do, but still visible. On the oscilloscope, it's unlikely that you'll be able to read anything correct. In fact I think it unlikely that we would have a DC current, which would be a proof of perpetual motion without us knowing where the energy comes from. If you treat the electron dipole as a changing current loop then the changing magnetic field as the electron moves through the field gradient induces a voltage into that current loop. That voltage of of a polarity whereby the source of the loop-current delivers power. If you treat the electron as a spinning spherical charge then the induced induced E field tries to slow down the spin, which of course it cannot do. Whatever keeps the electron permanently spinning could be the energy source. Quote I think that at the end of the iron wire where the field is strongest, we have a gradient opposite to the one established along the wire. This inverse gradient is over a very short distance, at the end of the wire, at the point where it meets the copper wire. At the end of the iron wire, in fact, the field lines spread out again since the wire is no longer there to channel them. The opposite effect of the two reverse gradients will prevent any current. I disagree. Within the copper the electrons are no longer spin-polarized (they lose their spin-polarization within a few Angstroms of the Fe-Cu interface) hence are not influenced by the presence of a field gradient. Of course the Fe-Cu interface must occur at the magnetic field maximum, which is within the Fe. That means drilling a hole in the Fe rod and ensuring that the Fe-Cu connection is at the bottom of the hole. I think a more likely reason for zero induced voltage is the Magnetic Seebeck Effect, which I presume means the Seebeck coefficient changes value if a magnetic field is present. Because of the Seebeck Effect the temperature must be the same at each end of the Fe rod. Maybe the Magnetic Seebeck effect exactly cancels the induced voltage because the magnetic field isn't the same at each end of the rod. Only experiment will tell us this. Smudge P.S. The Marinov generator is a more likely candidate for "where does the energy come from?". In my experiments I achieved 3 millivolts at 1000 RPM, and there is the possibility that E field radiation from electrons as they are accelerated from the brush onto the moving slip-ring similarly applies a load to the spinning electrons within the magnet.

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #36 on: 2021-06-25, 13:53:19 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	Quote from: Smudge on 2021-06-23, 09:47:40 ...If you treat the electron as a spinning spherical charge then the induced induced E field tries to slow down the spin, which of course it cannot do. I agree. This is a consequence of the quantization of the magnetic flux. Quote Whatever keeps the electron permanently spinning could be the energy source. No energy is needed to maintain motion, either linear or angular, only to overcome losses or to do work. No energy is required for electron spin. Quote I disagree. Within the copper the electrons are no longer spin-polarized (they lose their spin-polarization within a few Angstroms of the Fe-Cu interface) hence are not influenced by the presence of a field gradient... I agree, but that was not my point. I am saying that there is a reverse gradient at the end of the iron wire (probably in copper too a bit, but that's not my point). The field lines follow the wire. But when they reach the end, they meet the copper which cannot channel them anymore. The field lines will not continue to exit in the continuity of the wire, because the break in permeability is felt throughout the field line loop. Indeed, the field lines use the "shortest magnetic path", i.e. the field at the end of the iron wire rearranges its topology according to the environment (this is what we see in the representations of rectangular permanent magnets: the field lines do not come out at the end but escape before : The field lines then start to emerge with a larger and larger angle as we approach the end of the wire. So we will have a gradient in a small section before the end of the iron wire, and as the flux is conservative, this gradient will be identical to the other one along the wire and will compensate it exactly. I don't believe in the Seebeck effect here. --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

giantkiller	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #37 on: 2022-03-21, 03:43:33 »
Group: Elite Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1572 Frequency equals matter...	My assessment was and is SM turned an antenna into a conductor. Now when the antenna is FE it receives everything around it, regardless of the angle.This was one of his secrets.In trying to be a purist and please the purists I was concerned about this ambient noise being received from any angle.I backed away into researching more radio. I dont think I found anything new. But the transit way for the ambient is the antenna operation of one side of the device. There are two sides to the LTPU, top and bottom. Yes the iron wire is Vigarow garden wire. The recipe changed over the years since I bought the first batch for the GK4. But it is still FE. Glad to see my past efforts being noted. Sorry I have been away. I had to ponder the future for a while. SM was a master verbal prestidigitator. He was able to rephrase very specific operations to circumvent the NDA.The high speed bullets at the side of the car were square waves. --------------------------- http://purco.qc.ca/ftp/

Smudge	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #38 on: 2022-03-21, 14:51:18 »
Group: Professor Hero Member Posts: 1861	Thanks GK for bumping this thread snd reminding me that I did not reply to F6's comments. Quote I agree. This is a consequence of the quantization of the magnetic flux. No energy is needed to maintain motion, either linear or angular, only to overcome losses or to do work. No energy is required for electron spin. But just as a small PM can do work and supply energy I maintain that an even smaller in the form of a spinning electron can do so. Quote I agree, but that was not my point. I am saying that there is a reverse gradient at the end of the iron wire (probably in copper too a bit, but that's not my point). The field lines follow the wire. But when they reach the end, they meet the copper which cannot channel them anymore. The field lines will not continue to exit in the continuity of the wire, because the break in permeability is felt throughout the field line loop. Indeed, the field lines use the "shortest magnetic path", i.e. the field at the end of the iron wire rearranges its topology according to the environment (this is what we see in the representations of rectangular permanent magnets: the field lines do not come out at the end but escape before : The field lines then start to emerge with a larger and larger angle as we approach the end of the wire. So we will have a gradient in a small section before the end of the iron wire, and as the flux is conservative, this gradient will be identical to the other one along the wire and will compensate it exactly. I don't believe in the Seebeck effect here. Yes what you describe is for an isolated PM where demagnetization takes place. But if there is an external field applied say from another PM then that need not be so. The field lines can continue passing unabated through the ends of the magnet into the copper. There is then no reverse gradient that you describe. The spin polarized conduction electrons enter the Cu but there they quickly lose their polarization because of collisions with the Cu ions.

forest	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #39 on: 2022-03-21, 16:07:15 »
Sr. Member Posts: 462	https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=eH2TWPJiwEA and https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1rPyc_l-TVQ

F6FLT	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #40 on: 2022-03-23, 10:18:24 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 1984	Quote from: Smudge on 2022-03-21, 14:51:18 Thanks GK for bumping this thread snd reminding me that I did not reply to F6's comments.But just as a small PM can do work and supply energy I maintain that an even smaller in the form of a spinning electron can do so. Yes what you describe is for an isolated PM where demagnetization takes place. But if there is an external field applied say from another PM then that need not be so. The field lines can continue passing unabated through the ends of the magnet into the copper. There is then no reverse gradient that you describe. The spin polarized conduction electrons enter the Cu but there they quickly lose their polarization because of collisions with the Cu ions. The field lines follow the B vector and are perpendicular to the equipotentials of the magnetic field. With 2 magnets the fields are superimposed in their common zone of influence. I see no difference in principle between one magnet and two magnets, but only an arrangement of the magnetic field by superposition. As the field lines are looped, if there is a gradient somewhere, there is a reverse gradient somewhere else, required by the continuity of the flux. --------------------------- "Open your mind, but not like a trash bin"

GreyWolfn1a	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #41 on: 2022-03-23, 12:22:09 »
Group: Restricted Hero Member Posts: 1460 Enjoy your trek through life but leave no tracks	Quote from: Centraflow on 2021-05-05, 12:28:30 If any coupling is 90º, perpendicular, between any two conducting materials then the coupling is, IMO, capacitive as F6FLT has stated. Regards Mike it will still have a resonant component at a frequency, and a blotch wall effect especially if the winding is also added at that angle. Sil --------------------------- Be aware I'm moderated because I complained about persistent trolls to Chet, folowing me round and got same treatment as perpetrators..This is the third time, You aint doing this again.

Centraflow	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #42 on: 2022-03-23, 16:59:37 »
Group: Experimentalist Hero Member Posts: 2838	Quote from: AlienGrey on 2022-03-23, 12:22:09 it will still have a resonant component at a frequency, and a blotch wall effect especially if the winding is also added at that angle. Sil Even a capacitor has a self resonance Regards Mike PS. Maybe you should read my last post on the STEAP AND THE TPU thread. --------------------------- "All truth passes through three stages. First, it is ridiculed, second it is violently opposed, and third, it is accepted as self-evident." Arthur Schopenhauer, Philosopher, 1788-1860 As a general rule, the most successful person in life is the person that has the best information.

Sm0ky2	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #43 on: 2023-04-03, 17:35:40 »
Group: Guest	Need to bring this old thread back to life:: When we pass current through a copper wire (DC): We develop a magnetic field perpendicular to the wire looking down the wire in the direction of current: We observe a magnetic field on the left going upwards And a field on the right pointing downwards. (Tangental) Lets coil this wire (right hand rule) Now we have a magnetic field on the outside of the coil pointing up And a field on the inside of the coil pointing down. (looking from the perspective of the current through the wire not the coil as a whole) So if we use a wire that is magnetized when current flows through it: The current drives a magnetic field perpendicular to itself. The induced field produces an electric field perpendicular to ITSELF! These are two distinctly separate electric fields. One vectored parallel to the wire as it wraps around each turn And one perpendicular to the larger magnetic field. This is why an a/c electromagnetic field can induce electric current in a nearby conductor This is very similar to using a ferrous core, in terms of the outside perspective, under normal experimentation. However, the iron wire has fundamentally different field properties. With the core: the electric field is proportional to the magnetic strength at a point at a given distance from the coil However: with the iron wire, the electric field at a point at a given distance is proportional to the magnetic potential at that point, with respect to the field polarities. There is a greater electric field near the ends of the coil and weaker near it’s center.

Sm0ky2	Re: Confirming 90deg coupling to ferromagnetic wire. « Reply #44 on: 2023-04-03, 18:23:41 »
Group: Guest	Important thing to understand: In a static magnetic field, the electric field is also static. A potential For the electric field to change, there must be a change in the magnetic field (flux) The flux (delta B) induces a proportional electric flux (delta e) Therefore: an a/c magnetic field produces an a/c electric field of proportional magnitude between 2 points at different distances from the magnetic field source. Note: many people teaching basic magnetic concepts without the proper advanced education: Often use the term “flux” to mean the field itself, or apply the term to the density of the field lines. This is an improper use of the term. Flux is explicitly defined as: a change in magnetism. And the electric field is always perpendicular to the magnetic field vector

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