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Author Topic: FEMM shows interesting OU effect, the airgap is everything.  (Read 3673 times)
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Continuing on with previous research and countless of simulation iteration to try and find its breaking point but the results keep showing something that should not be possible. So I thought I would throw it in the community and see if it does have breaking points.

Well after all those battles with FEMM. And the secret was? A combination of an air gap and a coil, the latter will not be affected by the magnets due to the former. This synergy does very cool things. There is near zero voltage induced in the coil when the shown magnets move in and out of the region of the coil, why? Well Because of the air gap. The core near that part is not affected, most of the "flux" goes around the path of least resistance. We have no induced EMF HOWEVER when we apply a current to the coil ourselves this DOES affect the force/torque on the motor. In fact it has a quite large effect on the order of 5-10 Newtons which is quite significant torque wise. However the coil remains purely inductive when powered, its inductance is barely affected by the effect of the magnets as FEMM also shows.

How does it work? Well you can imagine the magnet assembly is rotating around a drum. When it comes close the coil energizes and causes a stronger pull force without affecting its inductance. And then when it flips polarity it gives the magnets a weaker pull back force AGAIN without affecting its inductance or current flow.

It also seems to love high currents as well. The more current is even more crazy force differentials.
   
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The design is btw not limited to the shown toroidal design either. Attached is an example of what would typically be called a gapped C core arrangement.

As you can see whenever the coil over the airgap is energized the force is changed however its barely changes inductance. The force can be quite significant the higher the current. Shown is a 4N force differential from 10A of current however at 20A this force diff becomes 25N, almost 5x times greater!

But since I am working with 200 turns I wanted to keep the current at a realistic level that a coil with that many turns could handle continuously preferably.

The left coil has even more interesting implications especially if you use IT to drive the current in the air gapped coil  ;). All simulations were ran multiple times on higher mesh refinement steps to exclude any simulation accuracy anomalies, the results however persist.

I hope anyone else understands what is going on here.
   
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The design is btw not limited to the shown toroidal design either. Attached is an example of what would typically be called a gapped C core arrangement.

As you can see whenever the coil over the airgap is energized the force is changed however its barely changes inductance. The force can be quite significant the higher the current. Shown is a 4N force differential from 10A of current however at 20A this force diff becomes 25N, almost 5x times greater!

But since I am working with 200 turns I wanted to keep the current at a realistic level that a coil with that many turns could handle continuously preferably.

The left coil has even more interesting implications especially if you use IT to drive the current in the air gapped coil  ;). All simulations were ran multiple times on higher mesh refinement steps to exclude any simulation accuracy anomalies, the results however persist.

I hope anyone else understands what is going on here.

Broli,

Most interesting simulation results!  I'm sorry but what kind of drive is "IT" you mention above?

Also, the current you are producing in the winding over the gap, is it generated by a constant voltage or constant current source?

Regards,
Pm
   
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Broli,

Most interesting simulation results!  I'm sorry but what kind of drive is "IT" you mention above?

Also, the current you are producing in the winding over the gap, is it generated by a constant voltage or constant current source?

Regards,
Pm

Hi partzman, thanks for the interest.

Sorry I meant the literal word "it" by referencing the left coil in the simulation. As for the current, currently its generated in a static way. Essentially I tell the coil how much current flows through it and I measure the forces. I do this for all kind of variations, positive, negative currents, position changes of the magnet assembly and variations in the core material (linear and non linear).

If we only used the "regular" coil on the left in the previous design, we would see a typical motor coil/core behavior. Where a back EMF is induced and impedes the applied the current. However this is not the case with the right coil. And what I was hinting at is that we can even take advantage of both attributes by hooking them up in series, you now have a coil inducing EMF and pushing current through itself AND the air gap coil. BUT this only seems to work if the winding ratio of the air gap coil is larger than the "normal" coil. I found a 1:10 or even 1:5 to be adequate. So for example the airgap coil would consist of 200 turns whereas the "regular" motor coil would consist of 20 turns.

But that is already getting into more controversial territory where the thing powers itself. Having a motor with little to no perceivable induced EMF (by only using the air gap coil) is a good start and quite a strange result to see in FEMM no matter how I change the design and problem definition. Whether reality has a different say I dont know but I have yet to come across this design in any OU community.
« Last Edit: 2024-02-17, 20:27:01 by broli »
   
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Hi Broli,

Since FEMM is based on the equations of physics, in particular Maxwell's, whose mathematical formalism guarantees the conservation of energy, any OU that appears is either due to bugs, calculation uncertainty or unrealistic parameterization. This is true whatever the simulation software (I've had OU as an artifact of ltspice or Working Model 2D).

That said, this may be a sign that the system has very few losses and is therefore prone to runaway at the slightest parameter that might be at the limit of the calculation uncertainties. It may therefore be worthwhile pursuing this in reality, as the high sensitivity of the set-up could then reveal a real anomaly, such as a magnetic flux conservativity default.


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https://youtube.com/shorts/jeziPoJia6w?feature=share
Does it can be cause increased oscillation of my vibrator ? This also has coil,magnet,gap.
   
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Hi Broli,

Since FEMM is based on the equations of physics, in particular Maxwell's, whose mathematical formalism guarantees the conservation of energy, any OU that appears is either due to bugs, calculation uncertainty or unrealistic parameterization. This is true whatever the simulation software (I've had OU as an artifact of ltspice or Working Model 2D).

That said, this may be a sign that the system has very few losses and is therefore prone to runaway at the slightest parameter that might be at the limit of the calculation uncertainties. It may therefore be worthwhile pursuing this in reality, as the high sensitivity of the set-up could then reveal a real anomaly, such as a magnetic flux conservativity default.

EDIT: Retracted original post.
« Last Edit: 2024-02-19, 18:31:20 by broli »
   
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The design is btw not limited to the shown toroidal design either. Attached is an example of what would typically be called a gapped C core arrangement.

As you can see whenever the coil over the airgap is energized the force is changed however its barely changes inductance. The force can be quite significant the higher the current. Shown is a 4N force differential from 10A of current however at 20A this force diff becomes 25N, almost 5x times greater!

But since I am working with 200 turns I wanted to keep the current at a realistic level that a coil with that many turns could handle continuously preferably.

The left coil has even more interesting implications especially if you use IT to drive the current in the air gapped coil  ;). All simulations were ran multiple times on higher mesh refinement steps to exclude any simulation accuracy anomalies, the results however persist.

I hope anyone else understands what is going on here.


Hi Broli,

Quite Interesting - Thanks for sharing your discoveries!

SL
   

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Hi Broli,

You have in FEMM the ability to derive a force v. distance profile for your rotor movement in the x y plane hence obain the mechanical energy gained or lost over that movement.  You also have the ability to derive the electrical input energy gained or lost during that movement using the flux linkage profile over the movement.  The flux linkage change between steps is N times the integral of the voltage, hence when multiplied by the coil current it yields the energy transfer at each step.  Creating the profiles is quite easy using Lua to create the stepping program and to output the data into a text file.  As you have not quoted any actual COP results I assume you have not done this.  If you need assistance in this I can help as I have done many Lua runs, and I must say that so far FEMM has not given me overunity.

Smudge 
   
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Hi Broli,

You have in FEMM the ability to derive a force v. distance profile for your rotor movement in the x y plane hence obain the mechanical energy gained or lost over that movement.  You also have the ability to derive the electrical input energy gained or lost during that movement using the flux linkage profile over the movement.  The flux linkage change between steps is N times the integral of the voltage, hence when multiplied by the coil current it yields the energy transfer at each step.  Creating the profiles is quite easy using Lua to create the stepping program and to output the data into a text file.  As you have not quoted any actual COP results I assume you have not done this.  If you need assistance in this I can help as I have done many Lua runs, and I must say that so far FEMM has not given me overunity.

Smudge

Dear Smudge,

I am aware of the LUA scripting in FEMM however honestly lately my time is going fully into my job and have little time and energy to do this kind of testing. So if you want to assist I would be very grateful for that! I attached the latest design I am playing with that is showing very asymmetrical forces. I completely got rid of the air gap as honestly it was not changing that much. Now its akin to a completely closed toroidal core fully wrapped with a coil.

I have done a very crude and linear analysis of what you asked and it shows a COP of 4.5. And honestly I have given the inductive energy way more energy than it really contains. In fact if I compare the magnetic energy of the core before and after the movement I get a much smaller difference. And this would make sense as the core I chose has a non-linear permeability. At high currents the magnetic energy of the core no longer changes much however the force keeps getting significantly asymmetrical. I know the force calculation is also not ideal and linear but if I only consider the actual magnetic energy of the whole magnetic region I am seeing a COP of 30-40.

As you said this needs a finer step by step analysis using scripting and perhaps at different currents to find the peak COP current as going too high has diminishing returns. Using flux linkage would also not be accurate and the total magnetic energy of the core region should be compared instead for a more accurate analysis.

I have attached and example of this of using 20A. And a small ball park calculation assuming even the inductance is linear with current (which it is not) and you can see there is a big difference in apparent energy. I also have attached a zip file with the FEMM file. I am eager to see the analysis, thank you.

I have a hunch that operating at near the saturation current is key.
   
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For those interested. Attached is a setup which could be Lua scripted. I tried to show in a limited way how the impact of current, force and energy in the (non linear) core have a unique interplay.

The calculations should iterate over a current range and displacement range to find the highest energy deltas. However even at 100A you get a reduction of almost 500N of the original 740N while the energy of the core goes down much less ratio wise. Around 3x for the force and 1.25x times for the energy in the core. And this is not even measuring the actual Work done by the force.

I dont think the core matters much as long as its non-linear which is any ferromagnetic core is in the real world. Even core losses are not that relevant! Because you dont have to flip the domains 180 degrees. According to research core losses and remanence ar much smaller if the domains rotate with a field rather than having to flip 180 degrees aburptly. I tried to illustrate this below. The domains align due the force of the permanent magnet, however if you apply a current coil you will torque them away from this position. The overal field barely changes because it is ONLY these affected domains near the magnet that are changed enough to reduce the mechanical force on the magnet. Yet at a much smaller magnetic energy cost. The argument here is that the applied field due to the magnet is at right angle with the current field. And second due to the relatively small "effect" area where the magnet acts on the relative inductance or rather magnetic energy change will be very small. This effect area essentially depends on the size of the magnets used and is where the domains are being torqued away from the magnet which costs little magnetic energy.


I hope someone can help with extracting the step wise data of this. I attached a cleaned up version of the previous FEMM file to avoid confusion. It contains a single magnet, the previous double magnet was mainly to demonstrate that the "total flux" change can be 0 due to the movement of the magnets alone if you used one on each side. Do note that current in the opposite direction does not give the same symmetrical force result either! This means that we could drive it with an AC tank rather than a PWM that switches the coil on and off at the right moment.
   

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Broli,

I have had a brief look at the FEMM file you put in your previous post.  There are three things that affect the COP figure you derived, two of them you probably expect because they relate to the non-linearities and the third is an error of omission.  I will demonstrate these in a graphical way but that will take time as my wife and I have just moved house and we are in a bit of chaos at the moment.  I am 90 in April and my wife is 89, we both have health problems and we have moved into retirement apartments that have extra care facitities.  Here is a summary of my findings.

1.  Your magnetic energy derivations using 1/2Li2 assume the core is linear.  Your flux data for 5A, 20A and 40A coil current indicate the significant non-linearity, saturation occurs at around 3A current.  Thus your input energy being the difference of the two magnetic energies in in error by a factor close to 2.

2.  You have omitted to take account of the flux change during magnet movement that induces voltage across the constant current generator hence demanding input energy, and that increases the error by another factor of 2, so we now have a factor of 4.

3.  Your average of the forces at each end of the magnet movement yields an energy output that assumes force v. distance is linear, and we know that it is not.  That introduces another error that overstates the output energy.  The net result is your crude analysis giving a COP of 4.5 now reduces to a COP near unity.  I am quite sure that a detailed attempt using say ten 1mm steps will result in that unity COP.

I will write this up with some charts showing the non-linearities that demonstrate how the energies are derived.

Smudge
   
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Welcome broli.
I read your study with interest.
I really like the results! The results are similar for some machines. Of course this is just my opinion.

I am not familiar with the spiritual world of the software you have just shared with us. So I am doubtful, but I am still interested.

I mean. How can this be a practical guide?
I don't understand exactly if this is a motor concept or a static permanent magnet generator? Or can it be applied to both?
Well. If we consider the phenomenon in terms of mechanical force, then it can be supported. (Unfortunately, for other reasons, I cannot present it now. Sorry.)
In my opinion there are several independent experiments (but there is no excess energy, only energy utilization)
Or there is an implementation similar to your idea. But not in the same way.
It is completely different, but let's think about the operations.From the third minute.
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=J61m6YY-2sY

A different idea.
In my opinion, your idea is similar here, based on the parameters given in the FEMM simulations. Of course, this is also complementary. Or the Bulgarian m.e.g. transformer.
 Here we can't talk about forces only variables.I underestimate.Without air gap no result.In this state there is no OU yet.Only simple transformation.
I apologize if my opinion is irrelevant.
Sincerely, Atti.












   
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« Last Edit: 2024-02-29, 18:48:22 by stivep »
   
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Broli,

I have had a brief look at the FEMM file you put in your previous post.  There are three things that affect the COP figure you derived, two of them you probably expect because they relate to the non-linearities and the third is an error of omission.  I will demonstrate these in a graphical way but that will take time as my wife and I have just moved house and we are in a bit of chaos at the moment.  I am 90 in April and my wife is 89, we both have health problems and we have moved into retirement apartments that have extra care facitities.  Here is a summary of my findings.

1.  Your magnetic energy derivations using 1/2Li2 assume the core is linear.  Your flux data for 5A, 20A and 40A coil current indicate the significant non-linearity, saturation occurs at around 3A current.  Thus your input energy being the difference of the two magnetic energies in in error by a factor close to 2.

2.  You have omitted to take account of the flux change during magnet movement that induces voltage across the constant current generator hence demanding input energy, and that increases the error by another factor of 2, so we now have a factor of 4.

3.  Your average of the forces at each end of the magnet movement yields an energy output that assumes force v. distance is linear, and we know that it is not.  That introduces another error that overstates the output energy.  The net result is your crude analysis giving a COP of 4.5 now reduces to a COP near unity.  I am quite sure that a detailed attempt using say ten 1mm steps will result in that unity COP.

I will write this up with some charts showing the non-linearities that demonstrate how the energies are derived.

Smudge

Hi smudge thanks for your feedback. I am amazed about your tenacity as an elderly gentleman. I would like to not let age come inbetween intellectual discord but I have great respect for your insights and ideas. I often see a lot overlap with ideas that keep my own mind busy.

As for your comments. I mostly agree. However the inductive energy would actually be overestimated if you considered it to be linear like I did. As for the force integral I assumed a linear degradation from the max to min force. Which is not ideal I know and needs to be scripted in tiny steps

I am not aware of handling changing voltages in FEMM. I kept it simple by assuming a constant current source over the duration of the magnets movement. However what I do want to highlight is when I instead select the entire core and calculate its energy In femm before and after the magnets moved, according to the literature this should be equivalent to calculating the changed inductive energy. In fact it would be much more accurate AND lower than considering the core to be linear like I did in the table posted earlier.

What I want to stress is the fact that not only does there "appear" to be more mechanical energy than magnetic, the actual reaction of the coil is such that the changing "field" it sees and its reaction to it actually help to reduce the force further rather than increase it as conventional motors do.
   
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I just did the analysis for a single 1mm step instead of the previous 10mm step, attached is the result. Its interesting to note that the same 30x factor also arrises in this analysis. I tried to add numbering so the analysis is easier to follow. This time I used the magnetic energy calculator in FEMM and selected the enclosed core area. This gives a much better estimate, and is essentially a free value FEMM gives you, than using flux linkage as the inductance which is non linear above saturation currents.

There are four interesting aspects to this:
  • The magnetic energy in the core is only reduced slightly. Aka the input energy.
  • It seems to like higher currents due to saturation. There probably is a peak after which you get diminishing returns. (Must be parametrized with scripting)
  • The potential induced "back emf" of the coil would act in in the APPLIED constant current direction further reducing the hold force on the magents as they move away from the core at a reduced force then they approached it. The coil current must act WITH the field of the magnet to reduce its pull force. How is no one talking about this effect alone?
  • And then the ridiculous COP.

To me this seems like gently torquing the magnetic domains back and forth is much better than trying to fight their fields head on. The effect in the proposed design acts 90° against the field and thus will try to gently torque the domains not flip them which costs much more energy and work.
« Last Edit: 2024-02-27, 19:02:11 by broli »
   

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But exist other programs for similar modeling. Why don't try to do it by any other programs ?
Solarlab has been advertising here for a long time, for example ANSyS. O0
« Last Edit: 2024-02-28, 17:03:45 by chief kolbacict »
   

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As for your comments. I mostly agree. However the inductive energy would actually be overestimated if you considered it to be linear like I did.
I have to disagree with you there.  The inductive energy 1/2Li2 is also given by 1/2Phi*i where Phi is the flux linkage.  In the plot of Phi v. current this energy is given by the area between the line and the Phi axis as shown below.   It is seen as a triangle whose area is 1/2 base*height and that accounts for the 1/2 factor.  Now look at the next image for a saturated core.  Clearly the linear case is an overestimate as you say.  But this is misleading when you take the enregy differences between the 0mm case and the 10mm case.  The third image shows this difference for the linear case and the final image for the non-linear case.  Now the linear version is an underestimate.

With regard to voltage, flux change is equal to the time-integral of the voltage hence fluxchange*constantcurrent yields energy, and this makes sense as the voltage determines the power taken from the current generator.  This can also be presented as a rectangle on the Phi v current chart and has an energy value that is twice the incorrect value derived from the linear inductances.  I have never used the FEMM magnetic energy facility so I must read up on that.

Smudge 
   

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Broli,

Having looked into the FEMM magnetic energy integral it is obvious to me that it does not necessarilty tell you the electrical input energy.  You can have magnetic energy in the core put there from the nearby magnet, you can then alter that energy by applying current through a coil.  That current can reduce the core energy but you actually supply energy to do it.  In the limit for certain geometries you can drive the core energy to zero.  So where has the input energy from the coil gone?   The answer must be somewhere else and that is outside the core where the field is not considered in your treatment.  As I see it using the FEMM energy facility is a huge mistake, the only sensible method is consideration of the field change seen by the coil yielding voltage*time that then gives energy from the constant current source.

Smudge
   
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Broli,

Having looked into the FEMM magnetic energy integral it is obvious to me that it does not necessarilty tell you the electrical input energy.  You can have magnetic energy in the core put there from the nearby magnet, you can then alter that energy by applying current through a coil.  That current can reduce the core energy but you actually supply energy to do it.  In the limit for certain geometries you can drive the core energy to zero.  So where has the input energy from the coil gone?   The answer must be somewhere else and that is outside the core where the field is not considered in your treatment.  As I see it using the FEMM energy facility is a huge mistake, the only sensible method is consideration of the field change seen by the coil yielding voltage*time that then gives energy from the constant current source.

Smudge
There shouldn't be anything wrong with using the magnetic energy and is often used in FEMM applications to measure total energy and to converge the simulation on. So its an important factor in EM simulators. Care should be taken when doing so over free space. But ours is bound by the core which should make it more accurate too.

This is what I am showing in the previous post. The top illustration shows the total energy in the core due to the magnets only. This energy due to the magnet alone is significantly lower in the core at 0 amps compared to 50A. Meaning most of the energy is due to the coil current which indeed has a cost. This cost can be easily calculated by measuring the core energy before and after moving the magnet at a constant current and should in theory equate to the inductive energy change of the coil. This eliminates the time dependent nature of changing voltage/flux linkage. But even taking THAT into account we are over unity.

I encourage anyone to jump in and validate. My own time is currently limited and cannot learn something new like Ansys but I welcome anyone else and if needed I can share the dfx file. I believe Ansys does have a transient solver. But the static solver like femm should do to compare results.
« Last Edit: 2024-02-28, 08:03:50 by broli »
   

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There shouldn't be anything wrong with using the magnetic energy and is often used in FEMM applications to measure total energy and to converge the simulation on. So its an important factor in EM simulators. Care should be taken when doing so over free space. But ours is bound by the core which should make it more accurate too.
I think you have missed the point I was making.  FEMM correctly calculates the BH product as an energy density that when integrated over the volume of the material yields the magnetic energy in the material.  You start with the energy put there by the magnet.  Additional energy from the coil can either increase or decrease that energy.  You then move the magnet to a new position and the magnetic energy has changed.  Removing the coil current now gives another value of magnetic energy.  You are of the opinion that you can use those values to obtain the difference in the initial coil supplied energy and that which is regained when the current is swicthed off.  I think that is a false assumption because the coil supplied energy influences magnetic energy in regions other then the core.  IMO you have to evaluate the change of magnetic energy not only within the core but also within the air space outside the core, within the copper and within the magnet.  The magnet energy will always return a negative answer and that introduces another intellectual challenge in deciding whether a reduction in negative energy there yields an answer that really is a positive supply of energy.  Using just the core energy will not tell you the electrical energy input.   

Quote
This is what I am showing in the previous post. The top illustration shows the total energy in the core due to the magnets only. This energy due to the magnet alone is significantly lower in the core at 0 amps compared to 50A. Meaning most of the energy is due to the coil current which indeed has a cost. This cost can be easily calculated by measuring the core energy before and after moving the magnet at a constant current and should in theory equate to the inductive energy change of the coil. This eliminates the time dependent nature of changing voltage/flux linkage. But even taking THAT into account we are over unity.

I disagree, I think that method will give wrong answers leading to wrong COP values.

Smudge
   
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I think you have missed the point I was making.  FEMM correctly calculates the BH product as an energy density that when integrated over the volume of the material yields the magnetic energy in the material.  You start with the energy put there by the magnet.  Additional energy from the coil can either increase or decrease that energy.  You then move the magnet to a new position and the magnetic energy has changed.  Removing the coil current now gives another value of magnetic energy.  You are of the opinion that you can use those values to obtain the difference in the initial coil supplied energy and that which is regained when the current is swicthed off.  I think that is a false assumption because the coil supplied energy influences magnetic energy in regions other then the core.  IMO you have to evaluate the change of magnetic energy not only within the core but also within the air space outside the core, within the copper and within the magnet.  The magnet energy will always return a negative answer and that introduces another intellectual challenge in deciding whether a reduction in negative energy there yields an answer that really is a positive supply of energy.  Using just the core energy will not tell you the electrical energy input.   

I disagree, I think that method will give wrong answers leading to wrong COP values.

Smudge

As I said previously I am open to anyone doing their own calculations or analysis hence the reason I shared the files. I am eager to see what your proposed method will show.
« Last Edit: 2024-02-28, 18:01:40 by broli »
   

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OK, here is a quick look at your single magnet movement of 1mm for comparison with your data.  The image below shows flux linkage v. current at the two magnet positions.  I initially did 10A steps but then added the 5A points so as to use Simpson's rule for the integrations.  I get input electrical energy when the coil is energized as 0.7383 joules and returned energy when the current is switched off as 0.7146 joules, a difference of 0.0237 joules. To this must be added the energy taken from the 50A current becaause of the flux change applying voltage to the current source during the movement, that calculates to 0.12065 joules.  Thus total electrical input is 0.1443 joules, to be compared with the mechanical output of 0.1455 joules.  The COP is 1.008.

Smudge

Edit. added the chart
   

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Thus total electrical input is 0.1443 joules, to be compared with the mechanical output of 0.1455 joules.  The COP is 1.008.

Smudge


It works out,that perpetuum mobile does not exist ?  Nobody never will be able  building it.  :-[ :'(
   
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    OK, here is a quick look at your single magnet movement of 1mm for comparison with your data.  The image below shows flux linkage v. current at the two magnet positions.  I initially did 10A steps but then added the 5A points so as to use Simpson's rule for the integrations.  I get input electrical energy when the coil is energized as 0.7383 joules and returned energy when the current is switched off as 0.7146 joules, a difference of 0.0237 joules. To this must be added the energy taken from the 50A current becaause of the flux change applying voltage to the current source during the movement, that calculates to 0.12065 joules.  Thus total electrical input is 0.1443 joules, to be compared with the mechanical output of 0.1455 joules.  The COP is 1.008.

    Smudge

    Edit. added the chart

    Hi smudge and thank you! I really appreciate constructive criticism like this rather than "You are wrong."

    What I find strange is how using magnetic energy over the elements gives such a different results. Here is a FEMM example where they talk about the different way to calculate inductance and how they are pretty much similar. One utilizes the magnetic energy while the other would then be your current method:

    https://www.femm.info/wiki/InductanceExample

    And as they state the former is indeed more accurate but the latter should be plenty accurate when most of the energy is confined and not in open air.

    Now I have two remarks for you.

    • 1) I find it very peculiar that your calculated energy values are in the ball park of 2x of mine? In the attached sim images I changed the magnets to be air to eliminate their contribution. I then Energized the coil to 50A and calculated the magnetic energy in the region both with and without the surrounding air. As you see the difference does not account for the 2x. I find it strange that FEMM itself demonstrates that both of these values can yield the same results when used in the correct situation yet ours are very different.
    • 2) Then what is also important in your analysis is to consider how this summation calculation of energy behaves depending on mesh refinement. Something I often do as a sanity check to validate the values on super fine meshes. where I do most of the quick checks with medium fine meshes and then the final with a superfine refinement that takes much longer to process but gives more accurate results. Does your energy delta change much with finer meshing? If so then this should be considered as an stastical error and accounted for especially when dealing with summations where errors tend to add up.

    To expand on the latter point, I believe for flux linkage, FEMM is using a clever contouring technique to calculate the area encased by the coil terminals. You even see such contours when you work with very refined meshes and calculate forces in such regions. It draws little red contours around the magnets for instance and uses them to calculates the force. The more "smooth" these lines (aka more triangles) the more accurate the calculated values. Thus in your analysis this "enclosing area" should be more refined to increase the accuracy of this value. Whereas right now the core region of the coil does not have that fine of a refinement as you see in the attached image.

    Also as an another example I compared the flux linkage difference between the current mesh and a more refined mesh at 50A current (again with no magnets). And as you see attached the difference cannot be underestimated. And following the rule of error propagation in statistics, and by assuming that the error value (sigma) is the same over every sample point. This simplifies to sigma*squareroot(n) where n is the amount of sample points (current values) you took. This means the error value grows by the square root of the amount of sample points. Whereas using the magnetic energy you dont need to worry about such propagation as you dont need multiple summations to approximate the energy. You just get it in one shot and thus focus all the processing power on the final run. Thus to consider this cumulative error I suggest you do one run with the current mesh and then one with a super fine one and take the difference. This difference can be your "fixed" error and used as the error for any subsequent run with a more coarse mesh to improve simulation times. From this you can determine the total error of the final result by multiply it to the squareroot of the amount of samples taken.

    Of course this is a simplistic approach. A more thorough one would be to do the entire analysis with a fine mesh and more sample points.

    Can you perform this suggestion at perhaps 100 amps with 10 sample points and consider the errror value?

    EDIT: Forgot to ask, did you move the magnets 1mm away or towards the core/coil in your analysis? As in the previously shared file the magnet was already moved away 1mm and thus the analysis should be done by comparing the current magnet's location vs 1mm TOWARDS the core.[/list]
    « Last Edit: 2024-03-01, 11:24:14 by broli »
       
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