I beg for your help.

[forest]

what about Newton first law ? I bet it is also important 

[chief kolbacict]

what about Newton first law ? I bet it is also important 

Yes,and I think  Lenz's law too.
So why is there no time gap between cause and effect ?
How then to distinguish them, where is the cause, where is the effect?
Or is there a gap?

[forest]

"Newton's first law states that every object will remain at rest or in uniform motion in a straight line unless compelled to change its state by the action of an external force. This tendency to resist changes in a state of motion is inertia."

but what it means if opposite is true ? what if all forces acting on object is balanced ?

[broli]

Yes,and I think  Lenz's law too.
So why is there no time gap between cause and effect ?
How then to distinguish them, where is the cause, where is the effect?
Or is there a gap?

You make a good point. What if newtons third law was not 'instantaneous'. In rigid bodies for example, we know it depends on the speed of sound through said material.

Perhaps the exploit to overunity is time dilation? Which is really a phase shift. Light entering a medium also undergoes a phase shift which gives it the illusion of 'slowing' down but really it's the material itself which is stretching and bending in a delayed matter because of its 'stiffness'. The stiffer the material the smaller the delay, hence why EM waves move much faster in metal lattices than in water. Or to put it more correctly, the wave energy is delayed much less in harder than in softer materials. And to break it down even more simply, this is because the wave that has a linear velocity suddenly gains a side ways velocity too because of how it bends the material, this side way velocity due to the interaction with the material is what gives rise to a 'delay' in the linear velocity or rather energy/momentum.

The question is what materials exhibit the most 'time' dilation if you want to build a more static or rigid demonstration. Well they should be 'soft' materials materials where the wave of energy (sound/EM/...) is 'delayed'. Rubber? Iron? Water? Anything with a hysteresis should be a good candidate as this can be seen as the materials 'time' delay factor. After which you start the injection of wave energy by 'hammering' the material which will ripple through the material with a certain speed but due to the time delay or phase shift the 'reaction' forces arrive and are balanced but in time they are 'unbalanced'. This creates a slight momentum advantage and the system appears to 'violate' newtons third law but it is only an illusion of a phase shift of the energy wave. The hammering can also be harmonic and voila you get resonance plus a continuous delayed reaction/'lenz' force and produce your 'anomalous' energy. Or as some perhaps would call it, a time machine that can extract energy lol. Pretty sure Tesla knew this but his scale and scope was too grandiose for his time. Key is to show this on a small scale before you go big.

So really, it's all about time or the illusion of it that occurs when you have multiple 'dimensions' rubbing against each other producing a energy/shock waves which produce a phase difference in said dimension with 'time' in between as a result. Newtons third law is a cardinal rule but it is not 'instant' and you must take into account the phase difference of the energy wave in all kinds of mediums/materials regardless where this energy wave came from. This is what causes the 'quantization' of momentum but really its just a travelling bundle of energy that is stretching and twisting in a corpuscular material made out of 'discrete' crystals which quantum physicists like to call the particle/wave duality. But hey everyone can have their fancy names right. But there is no end to it, it repeats on every level of this so called 'reality' perhaps even across the multiverse. There might be no height limit but there is an absolute bottom, the 0 Kelvin point. The immovable point, the 'super' singularity. That is the 'exploit' of the system, that is the only way one can 'produce' energy based on the 'illusion' of traveling and delaying energy waves to generate 'anomalous' unbalanced momentum in said 'crystals'.

So Dark Energy = phase shift of two massive crystals 'rubbing' against each other exchanging and releasing energy waves as a result? Who knows but if so, what kind of structure would it be, are there more like it, who or what put them there? Who knows and who cares really. It seems to repeat on every scale and there is seemingly infinite space to grow in. Perhaps we can stop the stupid fighting and wars, realize we are one big family, warm our cold butts and family homes with this 'anomalous' fire and enjoy the beautiful scenery outside that keeps restoring itself and evolving without our intervention in the form of trees, eco systems and life itself. I would like to see any Scientist, Prophet, Leader or 'God' explain the mechanism behind that to me. A mechanism that keeps making every generation more gentle, more harmonious, more empathic, more loving. All seemingly on its own. How do you imbued such an insanely complex system with love at such a low level and be self correcting and guiding at the same time? Sounds like God likes to build simple binary systems, with built-in error correction using a very simple software language: Love.

A simple system that repeats forever like a fractal and automatically evolves becoming more and more complex and which keeps self correcting towards one goal; 'Perfect' love. Whatever that might mean on the small and large scale. How would the universe look like when everyone strived to find the meaning of 'perfect' love? How would just our world look like if we all had one meaning in life, to work towards perfect love on every scale of time, dimensions and evolution. That is at least something I find personally worth working for, betting on and believing in.

[giantkiller]

Search:
http://rexresearch.com/pages-g/pages.htm

Natron theory.

[F6FLT]

You make a good point. What if newtons third law was not 'instantaneous'. In rigid bodies for example, we know it depends on the speed of sound through said material
...

That's the case with everything. Nothing is instantaneous. When you push a rigid object of length L, as you say, the other end doesn't move until a time of the order of magnitude of the propagation of sound in the material of the object.
But whatever phenomenon you're dealing with, the effect at distance L will never appear before a time less than L/c after the cause.
All physicists know this, and in no way does it call into question the laws of physics. In classical physics, cause-and-effect relationships are always established from one step to the next. When we consider a "rigid" object, this is only an approximation, valid only if the infinitesimal time between the moment when we push and the moment when the effect is felt at the other end, is negligible. If it isn't, then we need to take into account the propagation of the tiny deformation of the object from the part where it is compressed, to the other end. The same applies to the effect of a magnetic field. The primary coil must generate the magnetic field first, before the effect of current consumption by the secondary generates an opposing effect. Does this delay call into question Lenz's Law, which is merely an engineering rule? Of course not. Because energy is needed to build up the magnetic field before the secondary reacts. When the field variation has been transmitted across space at speed c to the secondary, then the current in the secondary generates an opposite field. The field is the mediator, and its propagation requires a delay like the tiny deformation of the rigid body. Lenz's law is an approximation of the macroscopic result when the primary and secondary are so close together that the propagation delay can be neglected AS IF cause and effect were instantaneous, which they never are.

The only exception to these always-near effects is quantum mechanics, with its instantaneous quantum entanglement. But in this case, there's no proof that anything has been transmitted from one entangled particle to the other - the no-communication theorem would suggest the opposite.

[chief kolbacict]

Does the magnetic field propagates through the ferrite rod between the two coils, primary and secondary, at the speed of light ? And at what speed does this field propagate from the primary coil deep into the center of the ferrite rod ?

[F6FLT]

Does the magnetic field propagates through the ferrite rod between the two coils, primary and secondary, at the speed of light ? And at what speed does this field propagate from the primary coil deep into the center of the ferrite rod ?

First of all, you should never think of a ferrite rod as a pipe through which a magnetic field moves.
The correct image is that of loops of field lines extending around the source (the conductors of the primary) as the field increases. Ferrite certainly helps these lines to pass through and concentrates them, but they always remain looped. The propagation velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a material is v=1/√(ε.µ ) where ε and µ are the permittivity and permeability of the material respectively.
As the field lines always loop partly outside the ferrite (except in the special case of a constant field in a torus), I assume that the velocity will be faster than 1/√(ε.µ ) but still slower than 1/√(ε0.µ0 ). 

[chief kolbacict]

i.e. if we take ferromagnetic rod of length 300000 km.with the primary and secondary coil on its tips,we would have one second to off Back EMF coming from secondary coil ? 
I've simply known one document which states that the diffusion of magnetic induction into the depths of the material has a speed that is orders of magnitude less than the speed of light.

[F6FLT]

i.e. if we take ferromagnetic rod of length 300000 km.with the primary and secondary coil on its tips,we would have one second to off Back EMF coming from secondary coil ? 

Why do you want to apply Lenz's law to a case where it's not only useless, but also false, because the conditions for the approximation it supposes are absent. As mentioned above, Lenz's law only applies when propagation times are negligible, which is no longer the case here.
If the bar were 300,000 km long, the field lines would loop outside the ferrite for 300,000 km on the way back too, which would be a completely inefficient magnetic circuit, but let's assume that the field does pass through. In this case, it would be like a radio transmitter: the primary coil generates a field in the ferrite, so loses energy to build the field which propagates to the secondary coil, which can then consume this energy.

I've simply known one document which states that the diffusion of magnetic induction into the depths of the material has a speed that is orders of magnitude less than the speed of light.

This is exactly what I wrote above.

"The propagation velocity of an electromagnetic wave in a material is v=1/√(ε.µ)".
In vacuum or air, c =1/√(ε0.µ0).   As in a material ε > ε0 and µ  > µ0 then v < c.

Now remember, the rod is NOT a pipe, nor is the magnetic field a fluid. In the quasistationary approximation, i.e. the everyday approximation and Lenz's Law, the bar concentrates the already-looped field lines.

If we see it as a pipe, then this is the very different case of propagation in a medium where v=1/√(ε.µ) is the velocity of the electromagnetic wave. In this case, the magnetic field lines are no longer looped around the current source but have become autonomous. Both an electric and magnetic field propagate, but for them to propagate the diameter of the ferrite would have to be at least equal to half the wavelength. Even if at the same frequency, the wavelength is shorter than in a vacuum, due to greater permittivity and permeability, a ferrite rod with a diameter of several tens of m would be needed for a 100 KHz signal to propagate in this way. For 300,000Km, it would be a big investment  .

[chief kolbacict]

If the bar were 300,000 km long, the field lines would loop outside the ferrite for 300,000 km on the way back too, which would be a completely inefficient magnetic circuit,

Then let we take a torus with a diameter of 300,000 km which is divided by the number pi.

[F6FLT]

Then let we take a torus with a diameter of 300,000 km which is divided by the number pi.

This doesn't really change anything. Unless we use frequencies with wavelengths greater than 600,000 km, the ferrite torus will never contain a constant field over its entire volume at any given moment.
Either we're in the near-field, and the magnetic field is captive to the current that gives rise to it, and Lenz's law applies, or the dimensions of the system are greater than the wavelengths used, and we have electromagnetic wave propagation. Whether it's in a ferrite, a waveguide or in space, the principles of electromagnetic propagation have been known for ages.
The mistake is to reason with Lenz's law or the equations of a transformer, for a system to which they don't apply and where RF engineering must be used.