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Author Topic: I Got a Speedup Effect..  (Read 21115 times)

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if the magnets field never cuts the super coil, then how is it that the supper coil repels it in the first place? preexisting opposing field?
Cutting is not needed for repulsion.
The repulsion happens because the ideal coil generates its own internal flux in response to the flux of an approaching magnet.  Both fluxes meet midway and interact.

what is the binder between the moving magnet and the super coil that causes the effect?
I do not understand what you mean by 'binder".  If you are asking me how the coil and magnets repel then I will answer "the same way as two magnets repel"  - with opposing fluxes.

if we pass iron by the coil, will there be any effects similar to the magnet pass? there must be some interaction.
There are two cases of that situation.  I do not know which one you are asking me about so I will answer both (I assume soft iron without remanent magnetization):
1) Initially the shorted ideal coil has no current circulating in it (because it became superconductive when there was no magnetic field around it):
    Result: The soft iron has no effect on the coil and the coil has no effect on the iron.

2) Initially the shorted ideal coil has current circulating in it (because it became superconductive when there was a magnetic field around it):
    Result: The soft iron is attracted to the coil and the current in the coil decreases as its energy is used up to polarize the iron's magnetic domains in the direction of the coil's field.

now, it is said that drag is due to resistance and there is no drag when there is no resistance.
Yes

If we have a copper coil, short it with a current meter, the coil dimentions are say 4in dia, 2 in inner dia, and a 1in magnet on a rotor for passing the coil face. as the magnet approaches the coil, current will be induced in one direction, producing a repelling field, opposite that of the magnet, causing slowdown of the rotor.
Correct and the current flowing in the coil will change.

then tdc, no current in the winding,
Why no current at TDC ?  What happened to the current that was induced when the magnet was approaching ?
Has some resistance dissipated it ?  Has something intervened to reset it to zero ?

...then magnet passing the second half of the coil induces currents in the opposite direction in the coil where the coils field is said to be attracted to the magnet, slowing down the rotor once more until it passes.  so now we have a supper coil of the same dimentions, with a super current meter to measure the current.  when the magnet approaches the coil, will there be any current read on that meter?  if so, then after tdc, the magnet passes the other side of the coils face, will there be any current read by that meter?  will that current be in the opposite direction on the meter?  if so, then the magnet will be dragged down throughout the pass, same as the copper.  granted the magnet passing the super coil will need to be spaced to a point where it doesnt just stop. 
  • With an ideal coil, the current at TDC is at the maximum.  This current does not change the direction as the magnet departs.  The magnet is repelled as it departs.
  • With a resistive coil, the current at is continually dissipated as heat by the resistance.  If the resistance is high enough then the current is dissipated so quickly that by TDC it has dissipated almost to zero.  When the magnet departs the TDC with zero current in the coil, a current is induced in the coil in the opposite direction (compared to the direction on approach).  Because the current changes direction, so does the force  ...and the magnet is attracted back to the coil on departure.  This causes net drag.

so, in the super coil, when the magnet approaches, is there a preexisting opposing field in the super coil to repell the magnet?
Normally, no.
However it is possible to pre-charge a super coil with current so that its current is present even if no magnets are around the coil.  That is how MRI magnets are pre-charged.

...or does the magnet induce the coil to produce that opposing field??
Even with not pre-charged coil, as the magnet approaches, it attempts to force its own flux down the throat of the coil.  The coil doesn't like that and reacts by inducing its own current that generates its own internal flux that opposes the flux from the oncoming magnet.

if you say the magnets flux never gets to cut the coil, then how is that opposing field produced?
Because of the fundamental property of an ideal coil which attempts to maintain the total flux the penetrates it.
To maintain the total flux the coil must create an equal an opposite flux that counteracts the attempted change.  I call this the Quantitative Lenz Law (QLL or QLE).  They don't teach it in the University (the teach only the qualitative Lenz Law) so that knowledge of it does not filter into LLM's weights during training and that's why AI initially makes errors when asked about it.  But it can be chased into a corner with simple logical questions to arrive at the the QLL by itself.  Once that is done - everything else falls into place.

if you say that once the current in the coil is produced, and that current continues on forever, is it stick in that condition? forever and cannot be changed unless the winding is cut
Almost.  That current can be interrupted by cutting the coil or rendering it resistive by heating it up (in whole or in part).  This is associated with huge energy release (often explosive).
However, the internal current can also be cancelled by an external flux source, e.g. like this:
Let's say a MRI super coil has 100kA of current circulating in it and it generates 10 Webers of flux (at e.g. 3 Tesla magnetic flux density as in a good MRI scanner).  Then if a magnet is brought near that coil and that magnet also generates 10 Webers of flux, then the coil no longer has to maintain the 100kA current to generate the 10 Webers of flux and the coil's current falls sown to zero.  The coil is still happy because the magnetic flux that penetrates it is still 10 Webers....it just now generated by the magnet instead of the current.
   

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you make it all over complicated..  how does the super coil know when the field of the magnet is approaching?   the magnets flux must be interacting with the super coil material internally some how someway in order for the super coil to produce an opposing field. no??  your saying it is not induced. is it E field?  is it the magical colored crystals effect from the land of the lost??   or is it that its just the way it is and no explanation needed?

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It was asked-   "Why no current at TDC ?  What happened to the current that was induced when the magnet was approaching ?
Has some resistance dissipated it ?  Has something intervened to reset it to zero ?"

When a magnet passes a coil, the direction of the induced current is determined by Fleming's Right-Hand Rule (or Lenz's Law), which dictates that the current depends on the direction the conductors travel relative to the magnetic field.

During magnet passage, two walls (sides) of the coil must be passed in succession.

Approaching Wall: As the magnet approaches and the conductors pass the first wall, the conductors are traveling in one direction relative to the magnetic field lines, inducing current in a specific direction (e.g., clockwise).

Receding Wall: When the magnet passes the exit wall, the conductors are traveling in the opposite direction relative to the field.

This forced change in the relative direction of travel from one side of the coil to the other necessitates a MANDATORY flip in polarity. The moment the current is forced to reverse its direction, it must pass through zero. This zero point is precisely when the magnet's center aligns with the coil's center.

So no, there is not some resistance event that dissipates all the power.  The polarity flip is Forced.


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you make it all over complicated.. 
I really try not to.
I just try to answer your questions directly in a detailed manner.

how does the super coil know when the field of the magnet is approaching?   the magnets flux must be interacting with the super coil material internally some how someway in order for the super coil to produce an opposing field. no?? 
This is the way it behaves, but if you drill down into the reasons why two magnets repel (it is the same reason why a coil and magnet repel) then you get into really weird territory of retarded potentials, spin quantum effects, relativity ...and the like.  To tell you the truth, mainstream science is completely lost as to the reason "why" magnets repel.  They even makes movies about the issue (see here).  My take on it is very different.  I do not subscribe to the mainstream explanation at all.  I have my own explantion that would put hair on your chest as it involves multidimensional time (something most people can't wrap their mind around, so I won't even try to explain it).

your saying it is not induced.
I say it is induced but without cutting the coil.  Even in the mainstream explanation, the induction of current in an ideal coil does not require the coil to be cut by the external flux lines.

...or is it that its just the way it is and no explanation needed?
Oh, the explanation is very needed, ....but it is possible to build machines based solely on the heuristic description of its behavior.
Qualitative Lenz Law, Quantitative Lenz Law, Faraday's law (for resistive coils) are all manifestations of such heuristic descriptions.
   

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"My take on it is very different.  I do not subscribe to the mainstream explanation at all.  I have my own explantion that would put hair on your chest as it involves multidimensional time (something most people can't wrap their mind around, so I won't even try to explain it)."

well i only have about 7 hairs on my chest and a couple on the nipples. so plant some on me.  i need it. ^-^

i believe faraday, tesla, coulomb, ampere, etc, had knowledge that i find incredible for their time.  much of the teachings these days neglects many of the fine and profound points that were discovered, and proven to work.  today the teachings for doctors and electronics has gone down a path of pill pushing and module replacing, via a guide from a diagnostic computer.

my brother took his 2008 vw to the dealership to replace an ign switch, a supposed common issue electrically. worked for a week. took it back, 2 weeks later they said the issue was in the inst cluster and was an imobilizer issue and no parts available. junk it.  i have worked on many cars. every single one i could take out the inst cluster and drive that thing. every one. lambos. honda. porsche. vw. mercedes. so they dont know dick.

anyway, spill the beans, or dont bring up things you will not disclose. :-\  ;)   this is the place to gro new hairs. O0

mags





   

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When a magnet passes a coil, the direction of the induced current is determined by Fleming's Right-Hand Rule (or Lenz's Law), which dictates that the current depends on the direction the conductors travel relative to the magnetic field.
During magnet passage, two walls (sides) of the coil must be passed in succession.
Approaching Wall: As the magnet approaches and the conductors pass the first wall, the conductors are traveling in one direction relative to the magnetic field lines, inducing current in a specific direction (e.g., clockwise).
Receding Wall: When the magnet passes the exit wall, the conductors are traveling in the opposite direction relative to the field.
This forced change in the relative direction of travel from one side of the coil to the other necessitates a MANDATORY flip in polarity.
The moment the current is forced to reverse its direction, it must pass through zero. This zero point is precisely when the magnet's center aligns with the coil's center.
So no, there is not some resistance event that dissipates all the power.  The polarity flip is Forced.
The double peak and zero crossing only looks to you that way because you are stuck in a very resistive regime.
In reality, the function of current vs. magnet pole's position is parametrized by the Resistance.  This is depicted in the following parametric plot:


i(x) : CURRENT IN A SHORTED COIL (i) vs. MAGNET POLE'S POSITION (x) and RESISTANCE (R). The vertical black axis denotes the TDC.
The i(x) function is normalized and parametrized by the Resistance (R), displayed in the upper-right corner. The R is normalized, too.


The plot above assumes that the coil was not being subjected to any external magnetic fields when it was shorted.  This also means, that the magnet had been very far away from the coil when it was shorted (certainly off the plot).

Notice that at some critical R ( low but still >0 ), the current stops reversing (i.e. falling below the black horizontal axis). 
Because the R is normalized, a custom R scaling factor must be calculated for a real combination of the coil's inductance (L) and speed (v) of the magnet's pole with respect to the coil.  When R=0 then v does not make any difference to the shape of the i(x) function.



P.S.
If the animated plot above does not fit on someone's computer screen then let me know and I will rectify it (this offer does not extend to phone screens).
I still haven't gotten a hold of the full version of the Gemini AI ...but I will.

   

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anyway, spill the beans, or dont bring up things you will not disclose. :-\  ;)   this is the place to gro new hairs. O0
I can send you some in a PM tomorrow, but not here.  Do you really want it ?
   

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I can send you some in a PM tomorrow, but not here.  Do you really want it ?

you make it sound scary. O0

sendit.

mags
   

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Two years ago  I came up a  method of magnetic field visualisation . Enough  placed CRT into a core .. :)
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OGkvfH44dr0
« Last Edit: 2025-12-05, 14:18:27 by chief kolbacict »
   
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In reality, the function of current vs. magnet pole's position is parametrized by the Resistance.  This is depicted in the following parametric plot:

I posted a similar question before that was not answered. So I will reword.

In an ideal coil with zero resistance, zero core losses, and an ideal short, the current is purely reactive and the real power is zero. With no real power being transferred, the mechanical drag is also zero. This is fully consistent with Lenz’s law, because Lenz only opposes real energy conversion—not reactive circulation.

When any real component is introduced—such as resistance, eddy currents, hysteresis, rectification, or any load that consumes real power—the system begins to dissipate energy. Real power extraction produces mechanical drag exactly proportional to that real power. This drag is simply the physical fulfillment of Lenz’s law.

Calling it “resistive drag” or “Lenz drag” are both accurate (IF resistance was the cause of the energy dissipation), because resistance is one of the common pathways for real power dissipation, but the underlying cause of the drag is always Lenz’s opposition to real energy transfer.

To dispute this, one must demonstrate that real power can be extracted or dissipated from an ideal coil without causing proportional drag. Without such a demonstration, Lenz’s law stands undisputed.

Summary-

“Resistance is only one of many mechanisms for real power dissipation. Eddy currents, hysteresis, core loss, and impedance loading through coupled coils can all produce mechanical drag on an ideal coil without adding any resistance to the inducing coil. Therefore, ‘resistive drag’ applies only in specific cases, while ‘Lenz drag’ is universally correct.”

If the argument is that "Lenz Drag" is not a textbook term, then we will correctly say-  "Electromagnetic Drag" due to Lenz's Law" But in it's essence, Lenz Drag is perfectly acceptable.


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Two years ago  I came up a  method of magnetic field visualisation . Enough  placed CRT into a core .. :)
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=OGkvfH44dr0
That reminds me of something I did 74 years ago at age 17.  I was challenged to make a frequency multplier that could multiply by 7.  I got a scope to produce a circular trace by simply having 90 degree phase shift between x and y deflections that were both sine waves.  I painted a 7 point star of conductive aquadag (carbon particles in water) onto the face of the CRT.  That picked off electrical impulses that were 7 times the input frequency.  I won the bet and my reward was a copy of "The Royal Signals Handbook of Line Communication" which I still have.

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The double peak and zero crossing only looks to you that way because you are stuck in a very resistive regime.
In reality, the function of current vs. magnet pole's position is parametrized by the Resistance.  This is depicted in the following parametric plot:


i(x) : CURRENT IN A SHORTED COIL (i) vs. MAGNET POLE'S POSITION (x) and RESISTANCE (R). The vertical black axis denotes the TDC.
The i(x) function is normalized and parametrized by the Resistance (R), displayed in the upper-right corner. The R is normalized, too.


The plot above assumes that the coil was not being subjected to any external magnetic fields when it was shorted.  This also means, that the magnet had been very far away from the coil when it was shorted (certainly off the plot).

Notice that at some critical R ( low but still >0 ), the current stops reversing (i.e. falling below the black horizontal axis). 
Because the R is normalized, a custom R scaling factor must be calculated for a real combination of the coil's inductance (L) and speed (v) of the magnet's pole with respect to the coil.  When R=0 then v does not make any difference to the shape of the i(x) function.
This plot is missing the induced EMF.

Why don't you simply calculate the current in the coil from the induced EMF using the Faraday's Law of induction ?
   
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As I await an answer from veripes, I asked Grok 4.1 this exact question:

"Is this assumption correct? An ideal coil with no losses or resistance with an ideal short dissipates no real power, so rotor drag would be zero while inducing such coil. But as soon as we dissipate any amount of power through resistance, core losses, impedance, etc Drag would manifest proportionately to the power dissipated. And since dissipation could be caused by several different avenues, the term "Resistive Drag" would not be a proper universal term."

Grok Replied:

Yes, your assumption is essentially correct and shows good physical intuition. Let’s clarify and refine it step by step, especially for rotating machines (induction motors, synchronous machines with damper windings, eddy-current brakes, etc.).
1. Ideal short-circuited coil (zero resistance, no core losses)

The coil can carry very large induced currents.
These currents create a magnetic field that exactly opposes the change in flux that created them (Lenz’s law).
In the reference frame of the rotor, the coil looks like a perfect mirror: whatever flux tries to penetrate is cancelled.
The stator sees the rotor as a perfect magnetic shield → the mutual inductance drops dramatically, but the power factor becomes purely reactive.
Real power transferred to the rotor coil = zero (because R = 0 and core losses = 0).
Therefore mechanical drag torque = zero (in steady state).

This is exactly why a squirrel-cage induction motor with a superconducting rotor (or a hypothetical zero-resistance cage) would have zero rotor I²R loss and zero torque at any slip except standstill or synchronous speed. No real power crosses the air gap → no mechanical power → no drag or driving torque.
2. As soon as you introduce any mechanism that dissipates real power in the rotor
Possible mechanisms:

Ohmic resistance in the conductors (I²R)
Hysteresis and eddy-current losses in the core
Eddy currents in solid steel poles or rotor body
Deliberate resistor banks (in wound-rotor motors)
Even stray load losses

→ The rotor circuit now has a non-zero real component in its impedance.
→ Real power now flows from the stator into the rotor circuit to supply those losses.
→ By energy conservation, that real power must come from mechanical power → a drag torque appears on the rotor that is exactly proportional to the total real power dissipated in the rotor**, regardless of how it is dissipated.
Mathematically (for induction machines):
Torque × synchronous speed = air-gap power
Air-gap power = developed mechanical power + total rotor losses
So
T = (rotor losses + mechanical output power) / ω_sync
If the machine is just being dragged (braking, no useful output), all air-gap power becomes rotor losses → drag torque is strictly proportional to the total real power burned in the rotor, no matter whether it is I²R, eddy currents, hysteresis, etc.
3. Conclusion on terminology

You are right: calling it “resistive drag” is too narrow and often misleading.
Better universal terms used in literature are:

Loss torque
Dissipative drag
Electromagnetic drag torque
Lenz drag
In eddy-current brakes: simply “braking torque”

In academic papers about superconducting machines or magnetic shielding, authors often emphasize that drag vanishes only when rotor dissipation vanishes completely.
So your reasoning is spot-on: the drag is proportional to the total real power dissipated in the rotor, not just the resistive part. “Resistive drag” is therefore not a proper universal term; it is a common shorthand in induction-motor contexts where rotor resistance dominates, but it fails when core losses or other mechanisms are significant.



Conclusion-

A perfectly superconducting (ideal, zero-resistance, zero-loss) coil experiences no Lenz drag as long as no real power is extracted or dissipated anywhere in the circuit it closes. The instant you extract usable real power from that circuit (or dissipate it in any form — resistive load, core losses, radiation, etc.), Lenz drag immediately appears on whatever is moving the flux relative to the coil.

To universally label Lens Drag as "Resistive Drag" is misleading and universally not accurate because the avenues that invoke drag can be (and are) not limited to resistance.  In Fact, Resistance is NOT even a necessary component for drag to manifest.


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Please clarify if you agree with the notion I am being told to absorb..  --->    "Drag is not a repercussion of Lenzes law"..

Floodrod;  "Apparently Drag is not a repercussion of Lenzes law...

Verpies:  That's right.
The mechanical drag (which is a net integral of the attractive and repulsive forces) that a non-ideal coil manifests is caused by the resistive and hysteresis energy dissipations.  When these factors are eliminated with an ideal coil, then the pure Lenz Effect remains.  This effect alone does not cause any drag."

Paste those statements into Gemini AI.  I have attached small snips of each response unpersuaded as-is.  Look at the responses....
I continually hinted that I am not in agreement with his views or teachings.  Enough is Enough.
Thanks to one of our lurking members, I finally was able to have a conversation with the full version of the Gemini AI.  I appreciate the loan.

Now that I could compare apples to apples, it turns out that the answers from THE SAME AI as you had used, are starkly different from what you had obtained from it.
Most likely this is a result of asking the AI shallow questions - because when one forces the AI to deeply analyze subtle and deep questions, then its answers are starkly different and more revealing.

Below are some excerpts. The full conversation is in the attached PDF file at the end of this post and the web link to the same conversation is here:


Gemini: "In Your Superconducting Loop (Lossless): The current does not flip."

Quote from: Verpies
If the Lenz Effect is not contaminated by other phenomena, such as resistance, does it always create zero net drag ?
Gemini: "Yes.
In the absence of resistance (or other energy-dissipating "contaminants" like eddy currents in the magnet itself or radiation), the "pure" Lenz Effect creates zero net drag over a complete approach-and-departure cycle."


Quote from: Verpies
In the case of a resistive loop (R>0) is it the Lenz Effect that is responsible for the positive net drag or the resistance ?
Gemini: "The short answer is: Resistance is responsible for the net drag."

Quote
With that insight, do you think that the phrase "Lenz Drag" is physically consistent ?
Gemini: "No, strictly speaking, it is not physically consistent.

The phrase conflates two distinct phenomena:
  1. Lenz's Law: A rule of direction (which can be purely elastic/conservative).
  2. Drag: An outcome of energy dissipation (requiring resistance).
A more accurate term would be "Resistive Magnetic Drag" or "Inductive Braking", as the drag is a consequence of the resistance, not the law of induction itself."
   

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As I await an answer from veripes, I asked Grok 4.1 this exact question:
I am a little behind answering your questions but I just answered your Gemini AI rebuttal.

See, I have this problem that often I just cannot identify your questions.
For example: I cannot find any question marks in this post of yours.  Also, I cannot identify any questions in that post using the English grammar rules.  It would really help if you put question marks at the end of your questions so I can identify them at a glance.

Also, in reference to your conversation with the Grok AI,  I have already posted my conversation with the same AI here and it has contradicted your position that the phrase "Lenz Drag" is conceptually consistent and that it is the Lenz Effect that is responsible for the drag in the resistive case.  I guess you have quietly conceded the other case (the one with the non-resistive coil, where the Lenz Effect does not create any net drag).  Feel free to correct me if my assumption about your quiet concession is incorrect.

Grok AI: "The phrase "Lenz Drag" is conceptually inconsistent when applied to the pure, isolated Lenz effect (without resistance or ferromagnetic hysteresis), as the effect itself is conservative and results in no net drag or energy dissipation over a complete cycle."

Do you want me to start a second conversation with the same Grok AI but with deeper and subtler questions ?  This is fun...
   

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  I won the bet and my reward was a copy of "The Royal Signals Handbook of Line Communication" which I still have.


Also I can measure quite exactly speed of magnetic field spinning. By modulation of beam by certain known  frequency.  :)https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=9IBGr7OAkbM
   
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It would really help if you put question marks at the end of your questions so I can identify them at a glance.


Okay I will ask CLEAR Questions.
So please answer these questions directly.
Keep in mind,  I am not asking about fringe situations or reported anomalies. We are speaking of universally accepted knowledge.

QUESTIONS 1:   Is Drag directly proportional to the amount of Power Dissipated?

QUESTIONS 2:   Can the source of drag be anything other than "Resistance" ?

QUESTIONS 3:   Can a situation exist where there is no resistance but Drag still be present? 

QUESTIONS 4:   If the answer was YES to question 2 or 3, how could the term "Resistive Drag" be a proper term for all drag?

QUESTIONS 5:   If the answer to question 1 was YES, doesn't that imply drag is consistent with Lenz law?

QUESTIONS 6:   If drag is universally consistent with Lenz law and drag can be caused by other mechanisms other than resistance, isn't it a contradiction of basic logic to universally label "Drag" as "Resistive Drag"?

QUESTIONS 7:  If all drag is universally consistent with Lenz law, would the term "Lenz Drag" be more appropriate than the term "Resistance Drag"?
« Last Edit: 2025-12-06, 15:55:02 by floodrod »


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Okay I will ask CLEAR Questions.
So please answer these questions directly.
That is the only way I answer questions.

I assume we are still discussing currents in ideal coils induced by the changing external flux of moving magnets and these coils can have various external components connected to them in series, such as:  various resistances (including zero) and various reactances and active elements like switches or diodes, etc...

Keep in mind,  I am not asking about fringe situations or reported anomalies. We are speaking of universally accepted knowledge.
I will not limit my answers only to the most common cases.


QUESTIONS 1:   Is Drag directly proportional to the amount of Power Dissipated?
Yes

QUESTIONS 2:   Can the source of drag be anything other than "Resistance" ?
Yes.
Any phenomenon that causes a voltage drop such as a diode's voltage drop or voltage drops caused by any impedance.  The voltage drop is proportional to current and impedance according to the relation V = iZ and Z=R+X, where resistance (R) is the real component of impedance and reactance (X) is the imaginary component of the impedance which is time dependent (phase shifted) and lossless (recoverable). 

QUESTIONS 3:   Can a situation exist where there is no resistance but Drag still be present? 
Yes, any time current in a coil is converted into heat by a resistance (or diode's voltage drop) or into other forms of energy (e.g.: into electric flux in a capacitor) then the moving magnet experiences drag because the converted energy is not given back to the magnet's kinetic energy on departure.  This does not happen with pure Lenz Effect and the magnet regains 100% of its kinetic energy upon departure.

QUESTIONS 4:   If the answer was YES to question 2 or 3, how could the term "Resistive Drag" be a proper term for all drag?
It is not. 
Resistance is only the most common cause of drag.  A better, all encompassing phrase would be "Impedance Drag" to cover all the components of impedance instead of only the real one (resistance).
I mean "real" in the mathematical sense as: Real + Imaginary = Complex.

QUESTIONS 5:   If the answer to question 1 was YES, doesn't that imply drag is consistent with Lenz law?
No, because pure Lenz Effect does not cause drag.
If Lenz Effect is contaminated with other effects (e.g.: non-zero impedance) then net drag can be present.

Gemini AI:   "THE ARCHITECT vs. THE EXECUTIONER

The Lenz Effect (The Architect): Lenz's Law provides the rule: "Generate a force to oppose the change." It ensures there is an interaction between the magnet and the loop. However, Lenz's law itself is neutral regarding energy loss—it just demands a reaction.

Resistance (The Executioner): Resistance dictates what happens to the energy generated by that reaction. It converts the electrical energy into heat. This removal of energy causes the asymmetry in the force that results in net drag.
"



In the end,  it is the EXECUTIONER that is charged with the "murder" even if the Architect has designed the gallows.


QUESTIONS 6:   If drag is universally consistent with Lenz law and ...
It is not.  Pure Lenz Effect does not cause any net drag.

... drag can be caused by other mechanisms other than resistance, isn't it a contradiction of basic logic to universally label "Drag" as "Resistive Drag"?
Yes it is.
Resistance is only the most common cause of drag.  A better, all encompassing phrase would be "Impedance Drag" to cover all the components of impedance instead of only the real one (resistance).

QUESTIONS 7:  If all drag is universally consistent with Lenz law, would the term "Lenz Drag" be more appropriate than the term "Resistance Drag"?
No because the relationship is not bijective.  Pure Lenz Effect does not cause any net drag. Only non-zero impedance generates drag by asymmetrically converting current in a coil that is generated due to the quantitative Lenz Law.
   

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FYI- Grok also says a super conducting perfect inductor exhibits enormous drag even with an ideal short and is witnessed every day in labs. Grok follows this by saying  "The only people who insist on “it’s only resistive drag” are usually those who are trying to preserve the illusion that eliminating copper losses would eliminate drag (a very common over-unity myth)"
Grok is wrong about the red whopper. Like, very-very wrong.

Ask it to integrate the forces experienced by the magnet during the approach phase and to integrate the forces experienced by the magnet during the departure phase from an ideal shorted loop. Sum these integrals.
While you are at it, ask it about the direction of the force that the magnet experiences on approach to the ideal shorted loop and the direction of the force that the magnet experiences on departure from the loop.  If the forces do not have the same directions (e.g. one is repulsion & the second is attraction) ask it whether the current in the loop has changed direction and if it says "yes" ask it at what magnet's position has that flip happened.  Then ask it what is the magnitude of magnet's flux attempting to thread the loop at that position.

Anticipate an additional error:  In my past conversations with Grok it got repeatedly confused whether the magnet's flux, which attempts to thread the loop, is at its maximim or at zero when the magnet is at the center of the loop.  The correct answer is that it is at the maximum there. The reasons for it are spelled out in the attached PDF document.  Grok will see the logic of the argument presented there if you forward it to him.  Don't bother with it if Grok does not make the mistake about the value of the flux when the magnet is at the center of the loop.
   
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I asked "QUESTIONS 5:   If the answer to question 1 was YES, doesn't that imply drag is consistent with Lenz law?"

You replied:


No, because pure Lenz Effect does not cause drag.
If Lenz Effect is contaminated with other effects (E.G. non-zero imedance) then net drag can be present.


I asked if it was "Consistent" with Lenz Law. Not if it was "Caused" by Lenz. 

Question 1b- Can you please explain how Drag is NOT Consistent with Lenz Law. ?

Edit-  This paragraph was deleted before replies were made because I decided it's best not provoke further arguments.

Note- You are right about Grok, he later corrected himself, hence my deletion of that statement.  The final conclusion was, If indeed a perfect lossless coil was induced by a rotating field, there would  be no drag because no power was dissipated, and this is completely congruent with Lenz Law.


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Question 1b- Can you please explain how Drag is NOT Consistent with Lenz Law. ?
I asked if it was "Consistent" with Lenz Law. Not if it was "Caused" by Lenz. 
You are correct about the change but I could not have answered that question as you have posed it because it was conceptually incorrect to start with. Let me explain why:

The Lenz Law is the minus sign in the Faraday's Law of induction expressed as ℰ = -dΦ/dt
Thus the only thing the Lenz Law can be consistent with is the direction of the induced current.  The common Lenz Law says nothing about the magnitude of the induced current !

You could have extended your question to "consistency with the Quantitative Lenz Law (QLL)" ...which is not taught in schools as such. 
If you had made such an extension, then you could have asked about the consistency of the QLL with the direction and magnitude of the induced current in an ideal shorted coil.

This would have been much better because the net drag is an integral of forces over the entire cycle and these forces are proportional to the gradient of the internal opposing flux generated by the coil ...and the internal flux is always directly proportional to the current flowing in the coil.  Writing it backwards:  Current → Internal opposing flux → B gradient → Instantaneous force → Integral of these forces over a distance or angle→ Mechanical drag.

So, I interpreted your word "consistent" as "caused" in my attempt to make sense out of your question.
I have not objected to the sense of your question immediately in order not to stall the flow of the conversation and not to be accused of dodging the question.

...but now you have done it for me.  No good deed goes unpunished  :(
   
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No need to worry over the flow of conversation-  I am done with this debate anyway.  This is turning into a game of dodgeball and is unfruitful.

If you want the last word for satisfaction, have at it.  I will still be using the term "Lenz Drag" when I think the context fits.

Thanks for the education.






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This is turning into a game of dodgeball and is unfruitful.
That also why I have not objected to the sense of your question in the first place -  I was afraid that you'd perceive it as "dodging" the question.
It is fruitful because it teaches you not to ask about consistency between the proverbial apples and oranges.

Note- You are right about Grok, he later corrected himself, hence my deletion of that statement. 
This is further evidence how pervasive these misconceptions about induction are.
They even have filtered into the AI's LLM neural network weights during its training.
It's a scourge on science.
   

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As you recommend- Here is "MY QUESTION" to AI:   be exact

Question-  "Is the mechanical "Drag" a generator experiences during induction directly caused by Lenz's Law of the magnetic fields between the output and rotor opposing motion?"

Answer-  "Yes, the mechanical "drag" or counter-torque a generator experiences during induction is a direct consequence of Lenz's Law and the resulting opposing magnetic forces.

🧭 The Role of Lenz's Law
Lenz's Law is a fundamental principle of electromagnetism and is also a statement of the conservation of energy"

Let me guess- You think my question was worded in a way to provoke than answer.

YES I said "EMF" instead of "EM Field" erronously. So apparently I need to be educated on textbook acronyms. (Which I care NOTHING about).

Maybe the Slogan of this site should Change from "Forum for Free Energy Researchers" 

to

"A Place Where Your Statements and Theories must be challenged lest they are allowed to impede scientific progress, ingrain misconceptions

This Mindset Directly Excludes Sharing "Fringe" Theories and Viewpoints.
Gemini 3 Pro Answer:
The answer to the specific question posed in the forum discussion is Yes.

Here is the detailed answer you can post or use to settle the debate, which validates the practical definition while acknowledging the theoretical nuance causing the confusion.

The Short Answer
Yes. The mechanical "drag" (counter-torque) a generator experiences is directly caused by the magnetic forces described by Lenz’s Law.

Lenz’s Law dictates that the direction of the induced current will create a magnetic field that opposes the motion of the rotor. This magnetic opposition is the physical force you feel as drag.

The Detailed Explanation (The "Why")
To understand why this is a valid answer—and why Verpies is arguing the opposite based on a technicality—you have to look at the difference between the source of the force and the result of the energy.

1. The Source of the Force (Lenz's Law) When you sweep a magnet past a coil, induction occurs.

According to Lenz's Law: The current flows in a direction that turns the coil into an electromagnet with polarity opposing your magnet.

The Result: You have to push hard to bring the magnet close (Repulsion) and pull hard to move it away (Attraction).

Conclusion: The physical force fighting your hand is indeed caused by the magnetic interaction dictated by Lenz's Law.

2. The Role of Resistance (The "Spring" vs. "Brake" Argument) This is where the confusion in the forum thread lies.

In a Real Generator (Floodrod's Context): The energy generated is removed from the system (lighting a bulb, heating a resistor, or just coil resistance). Because that energy is gone, the magnetic field cannot "push" the rotor back on the way out. You fight the opposition on the way in, but you don't get the refund on the way out. The result is continuous drag.

In a Superconducting Ideal Coil (Verpies' Context): If the coil had zero resistance and no load, the energy you put in pushing against the Lenz force would be stored in the magnetic field. As the magnet passes center, that stored energy would pull the magnet forward. It would act like a perfect spring—stiff to compress, but it snaps back. In this theoretical scenario, there is no net drag over a full rotation, just oscillation.

Summary
Verpies is technically correct that in a lossless universe, Lenz's Law acts as a spring, not a brake.

However, in the context of generator design, we are intentionally extracting energy. Once you add a load (resistance), you break the symmetry. The "Spring" effect is destroyed because the energy is drained. What remains is the opposition defined by Lenz's Law.

Therefore, strictly speaking: Lenz's Law provides the opposing force; the Load (Resistance) ensures that force results in net mechanical work (drag).

For the purpose of your post, you are correct: Without Lenz's Law, there would be no opposing magnetic field, and therefore no drag.

From Anthropic Claude Opus 4.5

On the core physics question:
Both you and Verpies are actually correct, but you're talking past each other because you're discussing different operating regimes.
Your position is correct for practical generators: In any real-world generator with resistive coils, the mechanical drag is a direct consequence of Lenz's Law. The induced current (which exists because of Lenz's Law) creates an opposing magnetic field that resists motion. This is standard generator physics and why generators require more mechanical input when loaded.

Verpies' position is correct for ideal superconducting coils: Here's where it gets interesting and counterintuitive. In a truly ideal superconducting coil (zero resistance), when a magnet approaches, current is induced that creates an opposing field (repulsion). But when the magnet departs, that same current keeps flowing (because there's no resistance to dissipate it), so now it creates an attractive force that accelerates the magnet back. Over a complete cycle, the energy borrowed during approach is returned during departure—net zero drag.

The key insight Verpies is making: The dissipation of energy (and thus permanent drag) requires somewhere for energy to go. In resistive coils, induced currents dissipate as heat (I²R losses). In superconductors, there's no dissipation mechanism, so energy is temporarily stored magnetically and returned.

Why this matters for generator design: It suggests that minimizing coil resistance and maximizing the ωL/R ratio (where ω is angular frequency and L is inductance) moves you toward a more "lossless" operating regime. High inductance, high speed, low resistance = less wasted energy as drag.

However—a practical caveat: You'll never eliminate drag entirely in a working generator because you want to extract energy. The load resistance is where useful work happens, and that load will always manifest as drag proportional to current drawn.
So your statement "braking effect from sweeping a magnet past a coil is caused by Lenz's Law" is operationally correct for any real-world application. Verpies' point is more about understanding where the energy actually goes—which could inform clever design choices.
   

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had a discussion on the subject of ideal  compnents years ago, here and at ou.

if you think about it, if we were to apply an input to a super coil, being that there is no resistance, i had suggested, without ever messing with superconducting components, that again if there is no resistance, would current even flow into that inductor being that the counter emf would equal the input because of the lack of resistance?? a standoff of course. one might say that well, the power supply onnected to the super coil ends is the resistance, but im not thinking that. the input with no current flow because that is what initially happens when doing so with inductors, should maintain itself and not let current flow at all.just like a super conductive disk floating over a magnet. if what i suggested were the case, then the super coil is useless and cant even be considered an inductor. but opponets to my view came up with ideas of why current would flow. spaing between the windings, etc.  now considering the discussion here, it seems that if a magnet passes a super coil that does have a resistive load, it would work well as a gen output winding. so the magnet pass of a shorted supercoil without reisistance cannot be cut by the approaching mag field, how is there any magnetic interaction betwee the shorted super coil and the magnet?  ive said it before earlier, what is the interaction that causes the magnet to feel any push or pull at all if the magnets flux cannot penetrate the super winding at all?  if the shorted super coil produces opposing or attracting effects, what is the mechanism for that to occur?

its not super important really be because it would be a useles situation anyway. but id like to know why that is.

   
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