Technically, a moving magnetic flux by itself will not move a stationary charge however, as you point out, a moving magnetic flux can create an electric field. This electric field can then move a stationary charge. i.e.: a magnet passing a wire.
This would mean that a moving magnetic flux cannot accelerate a stationary charge directly but it can accelerate the charge indirectly through an electric field acting as an intermediary.
Since there is a 1:1 correspondence between the changing/moving magnetic flux and the electric field, arguing whether the influence of the moving flux on charged particles is direct or through an intermediary, is a losing proposition ...unless an experiment can be devised to illustrate the difference. And at the moment, I can't think of any.
It does make the Lorentz force equation very awkward, though.
In its expanded form, this equation is a sum of the parallel force due to electric field (F=q⋅E) and the perpendicular
* force (F=q⋅v × B) due to the magnetic field vector (B) and the relative velocity (v) between the transverse
* component of the magnetic field (B) and the charged particle (q).
The full expression for the Lorentz force is:
F = q⋅E + q⋅v × B
or
F = q⋅(E + v × B)
Without the existence of direct influence of changing/moving flux on charged particles, the Lorentz force term (q⋅v × B) looks silly because the (v) refers to the relative velocity between the transverse component of the magnetic field (B) and the charged particle (q).
Note that (v) denotes a
relative velocity between the charged particle and the transverse magnetic flux, thus it does not matter whether you see the charge moving or the magnetic flux moving, ...or both. All that matters is that they are moving relative to each other.
This begs the following questions:
Q1) What happens when they are both moving at the same speed in the same direction ?
Q2) Does the changing/moving magnetic flux still generate an electric field ?
Q3) If the answer to Q2 is "yes" - does that electric field accelerate the charged particle ?
The answer to the 1
st question is: "Their relative velocity is zero thus the term (q⋅v × B) evaluates to zero, too"
The answer to the 2
nd question is: "It always does when the magnetic field is changing/moving ...however the magnetic field is
not moving wrt the charged particle even if it is moving wrt you".
I'll let you answer the 3
rd question...
In the end it does not matter whether you explain the Lorentz Force through an intermediary or not.
All that matters for experiments is that subjecting an electrically charged particle to a changing/moving magnetic flux, in the end causes that particle to be accelerated perpendicularly to that flux ...and it does not matter whether that particle appeared stationary to you initially, as long as there was
a relative motion between the transverse component of the magnetic flux and the charged particle.
Do we agree on that ?
There is an exception to this however in a transformer with a constant current in the secondary.
Can you elaborate ?
* I wrote "perpendicular" and "transverse" because of the cross product of the two vectors (v × B).