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Question: Do you want to read more about F6FLT's theory of electrodynamics ?  (Voting closed: 2026-01-25, 00:02:38)

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Author Topic: Electromagnetic Archimedes' screw  (Read 19459 times)
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Moreover, only an electric field can move charges when performing work. A magnetic field can only deflect moving charges.

I would add to this that only an electric field can accelerate charges (TPU).  For a long time I was under the misconception that a magnetic field could move and/or accelerate charges but it doesn't.  Logically then, this would leave us with some type of modulated electric field to move charges in an SM TPU which then these moving charges would create a moving magnet field as SM demonstrated.

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a rotating electric field will also cause a compass to rotate if the needle is conductive

   

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I would add to this that only an electric field can accelerate charges (TPU).  For a long time I was under the misconception that a magnetic field could move and/or accelerate charges but it doesn't.  Logically then, this would leave us with some type of modulated electric field to move charges in an SM TPU which then these moving charges would create a moving magnet field as SM demonstrated.

Pm
Since charges that can move are generally electrons that have spin, have a magnetic dipole moment and act like tiny bar magnets, they can be moved by magnetic fields.  A magnetic dipole within a non-uniform magnetic field can endure a linear force and hence an acceleration.  Of particular interest are the conduction electrons in Fe that are partially responsible for its magnetization, I.e.they can become spin-polarized when the Fe ions become magnetically aligned.  IMO there is much that can be done with Fe wire using this electron spin to get anomalous magneto-electric effects.
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Following on from my last post if a Fe rod passes through a toroidal core the electric field from AC current in the toroidal coil will move conduction electrons in the Fe and if that rod has PM's at each end so as to magnetize the rod you will then get some moving magnetization.  Could this be used for making an unusual magnetic motor?

What about a magnetized Fe hoop within a rotating magnetic field?  Can that field create bunching of the conduction electrons with those bunches driven round the hoop at the field rotation rate?  Those bunches will move at much greater speed than drift velocity, can this be used to good effect?  With that hoop passing through four toroidal cores having sequentially phased coil currents you can get similar rotating electron bunches (and hence also bunched electron magnets) creating magnets whirling at enormous speeds well beyond that obtainable mechanically.

So many possibilities!

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Since charges that can move are generally electrons that have spin, have a magnetic dipole moment and act like tiny bar magnets, they can be moved by magnetic fields.  A magnetic dipole within a non-uniform magnetic field can endure a linear force and hence an acceleration...

I agree with that. This only occurs in a non-uniform magnetic field. In all cases, the magnetic field does not work (in the referential of the observer).
 
When the charges rotate (or spin), they undergo the electric field E=VxB due to their speed. It is this electric field, the only one they can feel, that exerts a force. The main effect of this field is to exert a torque by aligning their rotation plane perpendicular to B, and also to move them by the same force F=q.E (where E=VxB) until they are (quickly) balanced by electrostatic forces from coulombian fields. Then no force is exerted, which is why a magnet in the Earth's constant magnetic field cannot move forward, only rotate.
If the field is not uniform, then the static equilibrium cannot be reached, so the charges move.

The key to understanding is to know that in the Lorentz force F=q.VxB, V is the speed of the charge seen by an observer, the one who also observes the B field. But in the proper referential of the charge, V=0, the Lorentz force does not exist, the charge only sees an electric field E, of intensity VxB where V and B are defined in the observer's referential.
If you put yourself in the position of the charge and take its point of view, everything becomes clearer about what it will do.



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a rotating electric field will also cause a compass to rotate if the needle is conductive

You should see the MP4 here: http://exvacuo.free.fr/div/index.php?q=boussole

In this experiment, I had put 2 perpendicular magnets, each powered by two synchronous sine signals of about 1 Hz and out of phase by 90°.
We see that the needle rotates while the field is fixed: we just have the intensity of the field which decreases in front of one magnet while increasing in front of the other, and so on and again, which forces the needle to align with the resultant of the two superposed fields.

At most we can talk of "rotating field" but it's a figure of speech, the field doesn't really rotate.




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a rotating electric field and a rotating magnetic field are two different things
   
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The  circular movement of the compass needle is a  not necessarily a proof of rotation of field at the poles. If you begin to move the frequency lower than 1 Hz, you may observe that the needle just moves between one or the other pole and does not have enough momentum to break free and create full rotation.

However, the compass needle when fully rotating is the rotating magnetic field, since it is a pre-magnetized  dipole in rotation about it's neutral point.

edited for hopefully more clarity, but of course I may be wrong about this as my own experiment may have been faulty in some manner.
« Last Edit: 2019-01-30, 03:29:49 by ion »


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You should see the MP4 here: http://exvacuo.free.fr/div/index.php?q=boussole

In this experiment, I had put 2 perpendicular magnets, each powered by two synchronous sine signals of about 1 Hz and out of phase by 90°.
We see that the needle rotates while the field is fixed: we just have the intensity of the field which decreases in front of one magnet while increasing in front of the other, and so on and again, which forces the needle to align with the resultant of the two superposed fields.

At most we can talk of "rotating field" but it's a figure of speech, the field doesn't really rotate.
Well you agree that the resultant of the two fixed field does rotate.  The resultant of two vectors is itself a vector, so in my mind that is a rotating field.
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If it is the electric field that causes charges (electrons) to move,how exactly dose the homopolar generator work when the magnets are rotated with the copper disk,meaning a non changing uniform field through the disc,and where there is no electric field until current starts to flow through the radius of the disc?.


Brad


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If it is the electric field that causes charges (electrons) to move,how exactly dose the homopolar generator work when the magnets are rotated with the copper disk,meaning a non changing uniform field through the disc,and where there is no electric field until current starts to flow through the radius of the disc?.
The magnetic field from the PM comes from electron orbits or spins, and those charges are moving at near light speed, the spin rates are enormous.  It is the movement of the electrons in the disc relative to those enormous speeds that create the effect.  Rotating the magnet at the low spin rate does little to those relative velocities.  Think of the magnet as simply a container of those enormous spins, rotating the container doesn't really have a significant effect, you still have those enormous spins inside and that is what the disc "sees".
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The magnetic field from the PM comes from electron orbits or spins, and those charges are moving at near light speed, the spin rates are enormous.  It is the movement of the electrons in the disc relative to those enormous speeds that create the effect.  Rotating the magnet at the low spin rate does little to those relative velocities.  Think of the magnet as simply a container of those enormous spins, rotating the container doesn't really have a significant effect, you still have those enormous spins inside and that is what the disc "sees".
Smudge

Yes,and so it matters not whether the magnets are stationary or rotating with the disc.

Now,as the field remains the same,and the effect upon the electrons in the disc remains the same,why dose the electron flow direction change with the rotational direction of the disc when the magnets rotate with the disc?

Changing the polarity of the magnets around leading to a change in electron flow direction through the disc is understandable,but when the magnetic field remains the same,and only the rotational direction of the disc is changed, which causes the electrons to flow through the disc in the opposite direction needs more thought i think?.


Brad


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...when the magnetic field remains the same,and only the rotational direction of the disc is changed, which causes the electrons to flow through the disc in the opposite direction needs more thought i think?.

It is the Lorentz force that acts on electrons. F=q.VxB. If you reverse the angular speed, the linear speed V becomes -V, so F becomes -F: the force is reversed too.


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It is the Lorentz force that acts on electrons. F=q.VxB. If you reverse the angular speed, the linear speed V becomes -V, so F becomes -F: the force is reversed too.

Well no actually.

The disc and magnets may remain stationary,and only the outer brush rotated around the disc's circumference,and a current will still flow through the disc,and a voltage will be produced across the disc.


Brad


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...
The disc and magnets may remain stationary,and only the outer brush rotated around the disc's circumference,and a current will still flow through the disc,and a voltage will be produced across the disc.
...

When the outer brush rotates around the circumference of the disc, it is exactly the same. It is enough to take into account the electrons in the moving circuit. They cross the magnetic field lines so that F=q.VxB still applies, and F is reversed if V or B changes sign (but not both at the same time).

It's a question of relativity. We have a circuit with two parts that move relative to each other, all bathed in a magnetic field. The effect of one onto the other is reciprocal. We don't know which moves or is at rest because it's just a point of view from the observer, the observer can be attached to one or the other referential.



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a rotating electric field and a rotating magnetic field are two different things

Not true, just a question of viewpoint. A magnetic field is an electric field seen by an observer moving with respect to the charges of the field source.

All electromagnetism is perfectly explained by relativity. Relative movements make the coulomb field no longer isotropic, it compresses in the direction of movement because of the lengths contraction (see attached picture), hence the transverse magnetic force which is in fact only the electrical force seen by the moving electron.

See for example the explanation for the experience of Ampère wires in this great course from P Bickerstaff, § 14.8.2 on page 236.

And as already mentioned, a field does not really rotate because it is not a local phenomenon but local scalars related to a distant phenomenon. Its change is only made from the source, in a finite time. A field cannot therefore rotate as if it were a block. If we really want to understand, we must abandon all these easy images.

« Last Edit: 2019-01-30, 18:16:22 by F6FLT »


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Conversely, two opposite charges moving IN THE SAME DIRECTION constitute electric current in opposite directions  :o   

That's what I said too. Has there been any misunderstanding?
It's the explanation I gave as why it's not possible to detect the current of charges deflected along the z-axis by the Lorentz force, in a dielectrics submitted to both an electric field creating a displacement current in the x-axis and a synchronous magnetic field in the y-axis.
Positive and negative charges move in the same direction, so the net current is null (because each current of charges of opposite sign is in opposite direction).
Perhaps the misunderstanding concerned the word "direction", depending on whether it is applied to charges or to current.

What is very surprising, however, is that the movement of negative electronic clouds is supposed to be of much larger amplitude than that of positive nuclei linked to the dielectric lattice, so the two currents should not cancel each other out.



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Quote
...
The Lorentz force accounts for the sign of the charge, so opposite charges will be deflected in opposite directions.
...
Not in my case. You seem to have forgotten that charges are accelerated by an electric field, so they are accelerated in opposite directions but they are bathed in the same magnetic field.
V being opposite, q being opposite, and B identical, F=q.VxB is the same: the two types of charge move in the same direction. Only the direction of the currents are opposite, likely cause of their undetectability.

Quote
The proton is 1830 times heavier then electron so there ought to be some differences.
The question remains: why can't it be observed?



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A rotating magnetic field created between two perpendicular windings driven in quadrature will accelerate charges, but it will not accelerate them in the directions depicted in the diagram below - which you seem to think. 
...
I can't seem to think that for the reason that I've never analyzed this experiment with regard to the issue of charges, but only with regard to the field.

In my answer, I indicated that the magnets increase the field here and reduce it there, and the needle orients itself according to the resultant of the field. It's just to show that a field doesn't really "rotate". We only shape it at a distance by varying the field intensity of each coil, nothing locally rotates, the field of each coil increases and decreases in cooperation and superpose at the position of the compass.


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No, but I know of him

Did you know Stephan Marinov?
   
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I was responding to the MHD case.
Indeed the Lorentz force has two components: the electric and the magnetic ...but only the magnetic one depends on the relative velocity.
In that case an electric field is the major cause of acceleration. The electric component of the Lorentz force does not depend on V. In your scenario, the acceleration is not due to the relative motion between charges and magnetic field (the magnetic component of the Lorentz force), so indeed F is the same.

You're not talking about the principle of the setup that I'm proposing to test experimentally. Unlike the MHD, it is electrically and not mechanically that I want to highlight the movement of charges under Lorentz force.
Look here at the underlying idea:
http://www.overunityresearch.com/index.php?topic=3690.msg71088#msg71088

See the diagram
. If it is not clear, I will clarify upon request.
The tests, which have been negative so far, lead now to this simple and direct question: why can't an electrical effect be detected between the plates of capacitor 2?

Quote
You might as well apply the same kind of thinking to a spinning bicycle wheel and claim that its rim is not spinning but moving vertically and horizontally
...P.S.
Please realize that every time you write "field" you are referring to a geometric field of forces (iow: a vector field of forces). Forces must act on something and that interaction with that something defines the force.  In electrodynamics a "field" is just a linguistic shorthand for a "field of forces".

I agree only with your P.S. and consider your comparison to be irrelevant ("comparison is not reason"), and here is why.

A bicycle is a physical reality that constitutes an undeformable whole, located in a well-defined volume of space, without any relationship to anything at a distance.

A field is a set of scalars that specify locally for each position in space the effect that a remote system will have on a charge. A field is defined only at a particular point position. A field E=F/q means a local condition that will produce a force F on a charge q at this unique position. But field E has a source that is not local.
If the source changes its field, it will take a time t=d/c for the field to be changed at a distance d. Since this distance d is obviously not the same for all the positions of space where the field is defined, it follows that the topology of the field will be modified during its "update" from the source, it will not be changed as a block, which is indeed proof that the field in a volume of space cannot be considered as a whole that could rotate or move, it is not an independent physical reality.

When a light spot is projected on a wall by a mobile projector that moves it along the wall, no one believes that the photons move along the wall. The photons always come from the projector and only from the projector, and hit the wall. I don't see any point in imagining that differently when it comes to a magnetic or electric field. On the contrary, it is extremely misleading.

Moreover, the approach by the potentials allows the same results to be achieved in terms of describing local effects, demonstrating that it is not even known whether the fields are closer than the potentials to the underlying physical reality they describe. A field, or a potential, is only a mathematical facility to describe local effects without having to take into account the remote source. It's not an object.

While everyone can imagine things as they wish to clarify their ideas, more rigor is needed to share ideas in a scientific context. Explanations by a field that would be an independent blob, animated, in motion or rotation, are childish and misleading, imho they must be avoided except in trivial cases, I was not saying anything more.


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F6FLT

One thing has me stumped with the homopolar generator  ???

We know there is a back torque when a load is placed across the output from the disc.
The question is this--we use the example where the magnets are attached to,and rotate with the disc--
Where is the physical brace for the back torque if the magnets are rotating with the disc?

I know it's not the brushes,as in my testing of my small 4 inch homopolar generator,there was no torque at all placed on the brushes when a load was placed across the output,and as there is no other physical bracing for the back torque to act against,i just don't see how the generator bogs down when under load,even though i know it dose.


Brad


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IMO it is the spinning electrons within the magnet where the back torque applies its force.  Those electrons "see"the magnetic field coming from the load current flowing through the disc.  It matters not whether the magnet is attached to the disc, the torque is generated inside the magnet on those pesky electrons.
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F6FLT

One thing has me stumped with the homopolar generator  ???

We know there is a back torque when a load is placed across the output from the disc.
The question is this--we use the example where the magnets are attached to,and rotate with the disc--
Where is the physical brace for the back torque if the magnets are rotating with the disc?

I know it's not the brushes,as in my testing of my small 4 inch homopolar generator,there was no torque at all placed on the brushes when a load was placed across the output,and as there is no other physical bracing for the back torque to act against,i just don't see how the generator bogs down when under load,even though i know it dose.


Brad

Brad,

I'm not sure I understood the configuration of your experiments correctly.

Either the brushes and the load are at rest and the disc is rotated, then the disc is slowed down, or the brushes rotate and the disc is fixed, but the load must rotate with the disc so that the experiment is symmetrical and the brushes are slowed down.

The current that causes the reaction can only be consumed when the load is connected in series in the part of the circuit that sees the other part rotating. This is why if you attach a capacitor between the rim and the center of the rotating disc, it will never charge (I checked it  :( ).

A magnet only acts here as an intermediary. It is as in the case of a dynamo where it acts as a mediator between electrical and mechanical energy: the magnet is not affected energetically. To the best of my knowledge, we cannot slow down the spin (nor the angular velocity of orbital electrons, the latter also contributing a little to the magnetic field).


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To the best of my knowledge, we cannot slow down the spin (nor the angular velocity of orbital electrons, the latter also contributing a little to the magnetic field).
You are right, and that is why those spins can be a source of energy.  In the presence of a changing magnetic field the induced electric vortex tries to slow down that spin and fails to do so, this results in energy being transferred into the field.  This becomes obvious when you consider the inter-atomic field within ferromagnetic material and in particular permanent magnets.  Current theory says that there the H field is in opposition to the B field, but that stems from our use of magnetization M as a spatially continuous attribute that does not allow that inter-atomic space to exist.  Within that space B and H are aligned and of ratio munought, and that applies to both hard and soft materials.  In soft materials the energy stored in that space far exceeds the input from the coils, and that extra energy comes from those electron spins acting as tiny generators.  I have made it my remaining lifetime work trying to extract some of that free energy, but I fear time is rapidly running out, this year I will be 85.
Smudge
   
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