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Author Topic: I Got a Speedup Effect..  (Read 13767 times)
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I concede that it does appear to act like an unusual motor and does in fact share many of the same qualities, but there are differences.

There does happen to be an unusual motor configuration that closely resembles my setup, but these unusual motor designs work both ways as Mags pointed out. Power the rotor or power the stator and the effect is the same. As demonstrated in my last video, this is not the case with my design.

This next part will certainly raise eyebrows and many will think I am nuts.

So if 3 phase AC was inserted to a properly wired rotor that was on a bearing and free to rotate, the Lenz force from it inducing the stationary stator would make it rotate. The output stator would be induced by the rotating field and attempt to oppose it, thus applying a counter-torque. So the rotor would rotate opposite to the field.

The above is basically what mine does, except there is another feature being overlooked.

In the 3 phase induction motor described above, Lenz's job is to oppose and ultimately slow or stop the magnetic rotation—so it exerts a counter torque that will rotate the rotor opposite the field as I stated earlier.

Since the physical coils on the rotor are now in rotation (because they are wired to the armature), the rotating field now slows its RPM when viewed from the stator's vantage point. So Lenz was successful in its attempt to squash the rotating field.

This may be difficult to understand, but if the magnetic field is travelling CW at 2 units but the armature, carrying the coils, was rotating the opposite way at 1 unit, 2-1=1. Lenz successfully slowed the magnetic rotation from 2 units to 1 unit.

In my machine, the RPM of the magnetic rotation is mechanically linked to the RPM of the armature through the commutator. Which means Lenz will attempt to slow the magnetic rotation with its counter torque but ends up rotating the armature opposite that of the field (just like the motor above).

But because the armature's physical rotation controls the brush speed against the commutator, it also controls the rotating magnetic field rotational frequency:

- Lenz attempts to slow the magnetic rotation with its counter torque
- But ends up increasing the RPM in the armature proportionally
- Setting up a condition where Lenz is constantly trying to slow the magnetic rotation
- But the very act of doing so spins the commutator quicker, which makes the field rotate quicker
- **Meaning Lenz can NEVER accomplish its goal of slowing the magnetic rotation**

In essence, we may be able to benefit from the Lenz force without the downside of slowing the rotating field.

It is my belief that this is why my machine drags and resists rotation when powered from the stator, but speeds up when powered from the brushes.

Regarding output, I have made no claims of a self-runner, nor did I say it was OU.


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If I have a wound rotor motor,Can I make a device like yours, or do I need to change the manifold?
   

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- Lenz attempts to slow the magnetic rotation with its counter torque
...
- **Meaning Lenz can NEVER accomplish its goal of slowing the magnetic rotation**
It is a misconception that the quantitative Lenz Effect slows down the mechanical motion over a full cycle.
This is a net-zero effect over a full cycle under ideal conditions.
It is the non-zero impedance (usually just resistance) of the non-ideal conditions that steals the mechanical energy (e.g.: maximum conversion to heat occurs when R = ωL, where ω is the cycle frequency. When R is 0 or ∞ then this conversion rate is zero).

Also, it is a misconception that shorting a coil dumps all of its stored energy (that is true about a capacitor, though).
In fact the opposite is true - shorting a coil preserves the energy that is stored within it. In case of an ideal short, the energy stored in an ideal coil is preserved indefinitely.

It is these two misconceptions that are the source of the struggles experienced by most OU motor engineers.
   

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It is a misconception that the quantitative Lenz Effect slows down the motion over a full cycle.
This Effect is a net-zero effect over a full cycle under ideal conditions.
It is the resistance of the non-ideal conditions that steals the energy (converts it to heat).

Also, it is a misconception that shorting a coil dumps all of its stored energy (that is true about a capacitor, though).
In fact the opposite is true - shorting a coil preserves the energy that is stored within it. In case of an ideal short, the energy stored in an ideal coil is preserved indefinitely.

It is these two misconceptions that are the source of the struggles experienced by most OU motor engineers.

Also why my freewheel diode extends the on time when switched off, right?
   

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Also why my freewheel diode extends the on time when switched off, right?
Yes, especially the diodes with a low voltage drop VF.
   
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Lenz will attempt to slow the magnetic rotation with its counter torque but ends up rotating the armature opposite that of the field (just like the motor above).

But because the armature's physical rotation controls the brush speed against the commutator, it also controls the rotating magnetic field rotational frequency:

- Lenz attempts to slow the magnetic rotation with its counter torque
- But ends up increasing the RPM in the armature proportionally
- Setting up a condition where Lenz is constantly trying to slow the magnetic rotation
- But the very act of doing so spins the commutator quicker, which makes the field rotate quicker
- **Meaning Lenz can NEVER accomplish its goal of slowing the magnetic rotation**
The problem with every single conventional motor and generator have is by design.
Once you understand how to solve by changing magnetic forces interaction geometry from direct magnetic transformer attraction and repulsion to magnetic flux switching like mag amps with alternative magnetic flux paths are doing - the whole issue will be non-existant.

Treat Lenz force as dynamic magnetic flux created which needs to close loop on alternative path and not on primary mover.

And here is a kicker with N. Tesla patent US447921A: once you have rotating magnet in the middle and 2 sets of different coils(at least 1 resonant high voltage (you control the frequency/rpm with it) and 1 high amperage type) under load with induced Lenz force, the coils will interact between themselves on the ring and not with the rotating magnet over air in the center of ring(the magnetic flux rule #1 - the shortest path, least resistance. And the air gap is worst case scenario. The goal is to force induced magnetic flux to travel along the ring and not over air gap). The rotating magnet in the center ring acts as catalyst to induce secondary magnetic induction reaction and not as energy transfer component. All you need to do is just to find right way to build resonant free wheeling circuit with bucking coils and circuit for the load on that ring.

Cheers!
   
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T1000
Original poster Floodrod also owns Mooker.com open source FE forum ( post #1 this topic)
Has experiments ongoing at his ORION build thread at Mooker
I believe he will gladly discuss any applications you have for improving the build ( bucking etc etc)
Link to Mooker topic
https://www.mooker.com/thread-322-page-13.html
Floodrod s handle at Mooker is “Jim Mac”

The problem with every single conventional motor and generator have is by design.
Once you understand how to solve by changing magnetic forces interaction geometry from direct magnetic transformer attraction and repulsion to magnetic flux switching like mag amps with alternative magnetic flux paths are doing - the whole issue will be non-existant.

Treat Lenz force as dynamic magnetic flux created which needs to close loop on alternativer path and not on primary mover.

And here is a kicker with N. Tesla patent US447921A: once you have rotating magnet in the middle and 2 sets of different coils(at least 1 resonant high voltage (you control the frequency/rpm with it) and 1 high amperage type) under load with induced Lenz force, the coils will interact between themselves on the ring and not with the rotating magnet over air in the center of ring(the magnetic flux rule #1 - the shortest path, least resistance. And the air gap is worst case scenario. The goal is to force induced magnetic flux to travel along the ring and not over air gap). The rotating magnet in the center ring acts as catalyst to induce secondary magnetic induction reaction and not as energy transfer component. All you need to do is just to find right way to build resonant free wheeling circuit with bucking coils and circuit for the load on that ring.

Cheers!
   

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Contrary to most understandings, Lenz Drag is not a negative manifestation of power output.
This is not even wrong because there is no such thing as "Lenz Drag".  If you had ideal components in your system then the Lenz Effect would take away as much mechanical energy on approach as it would give back on the departure of the rotor's pole.  Thus you better rename it to "Resistance Drag".
   
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If you had ideal components in your system then the Lenz Effect would take away as much mechanical energy on approach as it would give back on the departure of the rotor's pole. ".

I do not want to get into a debate but I will simply state my views are in opposition to this claim.  From all the evidence I have seen on the bench, a rotor's magnetic pole cutting across the face of the coil will cause the output coil to repel the rotor on the approach then attract the rotor on the depatrure.   The output's zero crossing occurs when the rotors magnetic pole is aligned to the center of the coutput coil's face.


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I do not want to get into a debate but I will simply state my views are in opposition to this claim.  From all the evidence I have seen on the bench, a rotor's magnetic pole cutting across the face of the coil will cause the output coil to repel the rotor on the approach then attract the rotor on the departure.   The output's zero crossing occurs when the rotors magnetic pole is aligned to the center of the output coil's face.
And I want to help you to understand - not to perpetuate a debate.

Your mistake is that you are overgeneralizing from the specific behavior of the Lenz Effect that you observe on your workbench to the general universal principle.
Your observations are correct ...but only because your components are far from ideal (ideal means: no resistance, no ferromagnetic hysteresis, no interturn and interwinding capacitances, etc...).

If your components were ideal then a rotor's magnetic pole flying across the face of a shorted coil would:
  1) cause the output coil to repel the rotor on the approach
  2) cause the output coil to also repel the rotor on the departure

I know you don't believe me because you are not seeing this on a a workbench, but you would believe me if you had shorted superconducting coils.
I know it is a tall order to start using superconducting coils, but if you cannot than all is not lost because the mechanical force in pt. 2 does not suddenly switch from attraction to repulsion as you hit superconductivity but changes to repulsion gradually as the resistance decreases and/or inductance increases and the speed of the moving pole increases. 

Satisfying these 3 conditions lets you approach the superconducting operating regime without actually reaching superconductivity:
  • Speed (or frequency) up
  • Inductance up
  • Resistance down

This opens up an avenue of experimentation to you that does not involve superconducting coils.
There is a simple equation that tells you when the mechanical energy lost by approaching and departing the coil is the highest.  This happens when R =  2*π*f*L
where:
f is the angular frequency in rotations per second,
L is the inductance of the winding in Henries,
R is the resistance of the coil including the resistance of the load in Ohms)

At R = 2πfL you get the highest energy loss, but the good news is that below it, the losses decrease and eventually reach zero.  This happens because more and more energy remains in the coil after the approach phase, causing the departure phase to remain in the repulsion regime for longer and longer times.  Without R=0 you'd require infinte speeds or infinite inductances (which is not practical) but you can approach it close enough to witness the effect.

Above R = 2πfL the losses decrease, too ...and eventually they reach zero.  This usually happens when the resistance reaches infinity (i.e. coil becomes open-circuited) or the rotor speed falls to zero  (which is obvious and boring).

There is a little complication with that formula when the approach phase doesn't last 50% of the entire cycle time, but as rule of thumb you just multiply the f by (50% divided by the duty cycle of the approch phase).
   
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think you may be overlooking a key distinction. The reversal I’m describing on departure isn’t caused by resistive decay of the induced current, it’s caused by the geometry of induction itself. Even in a superconducting coil, the induced current is not free to “just persist” in one polarity. As the rotor’s pole sweeps past the coil face, the flux linkage changes sign. By Faraday’s law, the induced EMF must change sign as well, which forces the current to reverse.

So the attraction I see on departure is not a symptom of copper losses—it’s the inevitable consequence of the flux derivative changing sign across the coil’s two walls. Superconductivity would only eliminate resistive losses and extend the magnitude/duration of the induced current, but it would not prevent the polarity flip.

In other words:

Approach phase → flux increasing → induced current opposes increase → repulsion.

Zero crossing → flux change = 0 → current crosses zero at coil center.

Departure phase → flux decreasing → induced current opposes decrease → attraction.

That sequence is dictated by Faraday’s law and coil symmetry, not by resistance. Superconductivity strengthens the effect but doesn’t alter the fundamental reversal.


I can see how your explanation might hold in the case of a static transformer, where the flux modulation is essentially one‑dimensional and the induced current can remain in a single polarity for longer intervals. But a rotational device is fundamentally different.

In a rotating geometry, the coil face is sequentially exposed to increasing flux over one wall as the flux is decreasing over the other wall. That symmetry forces the induced EMF to change sign as the pole passes through center alignment. Even with zero resistance, the current cannot remain in one polarity because the flux derivative itself reverses.

So while a transformer can sustain a single‑polarity modulation under steady "Single Polarity" excitation, a rotating coil is bound to alternate:

Approach → flux increasing → repulsion.

Center alignment → zero crossing.

Departure → flux decreasing → attraction.

Superconductivity would only amplify the magnitude and persistence of those induced currents, but it wouldn’t eliminate the polarity flip dictated by rotational symmetry.


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Think you may be overlooking a key distinction. The reversal I’m describing on departure isn’t caused by resistive decay of the induced current,
That is exactly it.  You understood me ...but you don't believe me.  That's OK - we will get there.

...it’s caused by the geometry of induction itself. Even in a superconducting coil, the induced current is not free to “just persist” in one polarity.
In a shorted superconducting coil that is exactly what happens!  The induced current persists indefinitely.  There is a superconducting coil on Earth in which the current has been persisting for over 20 years !

As the rotor’s pole sweeps past the coil face, the flux linkage changes sign.
Ah, but the magnetic flux that penetrates a shorted ideal coil cannot change (by penetration I mean a loop integral of the flux).  That is the beauty of it - it is the key to understanding the entire electromagnetic induction phenomenon.
The current induced in the shorted loop is such that the internal magnetic flux generated by that current cancels any change that the external flux is trying to make, thus keeping the total flux penetrating the coil constant and preventing any flux lines from cutting the coil (i.e. changing your flux linkage).  This simulation shows this principle beautifully.

Oh, ...and and one more thing:  The magnitude of current induced in an ideal shorted coil by an external flux source DOES NOT DEPEND on the speed with which that external flux changes.  Nanosecond or a year - the induced current ens up the same magnitude.

By Faraday’s law, the induced EMF must change sign as well, which forces the current to reverse.
Faraday's law (induced EMF ℰ by a changing external flux) breaks down with an ideal shorted coil because when R=0 and i=ℰ/R then this would means that i=∞ for any ℰ>0,  which is ridiculous.
In my opinion analyzing coils through the prism of induced EMF (ℰ)  and Ohm's Law:  i=ℰ/R,  is exactly the kind of wrong path that prevents people from fully grasping electromagnetic induction.

So the attraction I see on departure is not a symptom of copper losses
Oh, yes it is !   ...and the transfer of coil's stored energy to the load, too, of course,

—it’s the inevitable consequence of the flux derivative changing sign across the coil’s two walls.
The external flux's time derivative dΦ/dt has absolutely no influence on the magnitude of the current induced in a shorted ideal coil.  Like I already wrote: The flux can change in a nanosecond or in a year - it makes no difference.
You are just so used to common coils leaking their stored energy/current all the time (like Mr. Faraday), that you think that the speed of the external flux changes makes a difference in the induced current (because the external flux represents energy replenishment to the leaky coil) ...but I got news for you - to an ideal shorted coil that speed (rate of Φ change) makes not an iota of difference.

Superconductivity would only eliminate resistive losses and extend the magnitude/duration of the induced current, but it would not prevent the polarity flip.
Not only - it also prevents the flux from cutting the coil and changing flux linkage which completely defeats the Faraday's Law.  Not a small feat.
Also, what "polarity flip" ?  The direction of induced current in a shorted ideal coil does not change direction by itself.

In other words:
Approach phase → flux increasing → induced current opposes increase → repulsion.
I agree with the proviso that when you write "flux increasing" you mean external flux, because the total flux (internal + external) that penetrates an ideal shorted coil stays constant.
Also, you skipped one arrow - it should have been:
Approach phase → external flux increasing → induced current generates an internal flux → internal flux opposes the external flux (or increase of total penetrating flux) → repulsion and the total penetrating flux stays constant.

Zero crossing → flux change = 0 → current crosses zero at coil center.
Departure phase → flux decreasing → induced current opposes decrease → attraction.
No, in an ideal shorted coil you do not start from 0 flux.  The current induced during the approach phase still circulates in the coil and it generates internal flux that opposes any changes in total flux penetration attempted by the external flux.  This means repulsion.  If you were starting form zero internal flux, then you'd have attraction on departure ...but you don't because an ideal shorted coil has not lost its current (and the internal flux it generates) that has been induced during the approach phase.

That sequence is dictated by Faraday’s law and coil symmetry, not by resistance. Superconductivity strengthens the effect but doesn’t alter the fundamental reversal.
...
Superconductivity would only amplify the magnitude and persistence of those induced currents, but it wouldn’t eliminate the polarity flip dictated by rotational symmetry.
Nothing of the sort.  Faraday's law is not applicable to ideal coils because when R=0 then Ohm's Law i=ℰ/R dictates that i=∞ which is ridiculous.
The Quantitative Lenz Effect (QLE) nips the Faraday's Law in the bud before the bastard has a chance to act, because QLE does not allow for the change of the flux linkage through an ideal shorted coil.
His little brother (the qualitative Lenz Effect) which you all know and love, defines only the sign of the induced EMF in the parent law.  The qualitative Lenz Effect is the minus sign in the Faraday's parent Law: ℰ= -dΦ/dt.  Both of them say noting about the quantity of the induced current.  The big brother (QLE) - does   ...and it slaughters the brother and the father.

   
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The “20‑year persistence” example refers to a static trapped current in a superconducting loop — a DC bias that remains when you induce it once and then leave the coil isolated.
That’s a very different case from a coil under a continuously alternating or rotating field.

When the external flux keeps changing polarity, the coil must adjust its current to conserve the fluxoid.

If the external flux excursion crosses the conserved value, the induced current polarity flips. In other words, under AC drive the coil does not sit there producing one‑direction DC forever — it responds dynamically, and the output polarity changes with the inducing field.

So:

Persistent DC for decades = trapped current in an isolated superconducting loop.
Polarity reversal = inevitable when the external field swings through the conserved fluxoid value.
Mixing those two cases is what causes the confusion.

As the rotor’s field sweeps, the coil generates currents that oppose flux changes.

Even though there are no resistive losses, the rotor still feels drag because it must do mechanical work to maintain fluxoid conservation.

That work is stored as magnetic energy in the coil’s persistent current.

If the rotor keeps rotating, the coil’s current adjusts continuously — and if the external flux crosses the conserved value, the current polarity flips. Each adjustment resists the rotor’s motion, manifesting as drag.


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im with flood on this one. saying that the magnet approaching the face of a super coil begins somthing that cant be stopped is silly. if the approaching magnet sees a lenz repell effect on approach, and the coils condition cannot be changed from there, then id say the magnet could never make it past or to tdc..  besides, why are we shorting the super coil??? why would we not use that possitive and then negative output from the magnet pass?? special useless case i suppose.

like saying the cap to cap losses are because of resistance. another useless circuit. but that 50% loss is not due to resistive loss.  ideal, same loss.

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The “20‑year persistence” example refers to a static trapped current in a superconducting loop — a DC bias that remains when you induce it once and then leave the coil isolated.
That’s a very different case from a coil under a continuously alternating or rotating field.
The behavior is the same - complete and total penetrating flux preservation.
What the current does, to keep the flux constant is a different issue

When the external flux keeps changing polarity, the coil must adjust its current to conserve the fluxoid.
If the external flux excursion crosses the conserved value, the induced current polarity flips. In other words, under AC drive the coil does not sit there producing one‑direction DC forever — it responds dynamically, and the output polarity changes with the inducing field.
I agree, but an approaching and departing pole of a motor is not an AC drive.

So:
Persistent DC for decades = trapped current in an isolated superconducting loop.
It's more of a "trapped flux".
Current is only reactionary to keep the trapped flux constant.

Polarity reversal = inevitable when the external field swings through the conserved fluxoid value.
No flux nor current polarity reversal happens when a pole approaches and departs an ideal coil.
If another pole comes along and is of a different polarity, then it can reverse the current ...but not the flux through the ideal coil.

As the rotor’s field sweeps, the coil generates currents that oppose flux changes.
Yes.
It is important to answer the question "changes measured from what datum ?".  In case of an ideal shorted coil the datum is always the state of the coil the moment it was frozen (when it became superconductive).  In case of resistive coils, the datum is always moving in time but stays behind us just a short time.  What "time" ?   The RL time, of course.

Even though there are no resistive losses, the rotor still feels drag because it must do mechanical work to maintain fluxoid conservation.
No because with an ideal coil there is no drag.  There is only repulsion on approach and departure ...and the magnitudes of these repulsions are the same.

That work is stored as magnetic energy in the coil’s persistent current.
The work done by an approaching pole is stored, yes.   In an ideal case - indefinitely.
Work is energy.  The same stored energy repels the pole when it is departing.

If the rotor keeps rotating, the coil’s current adjusts continuously.
Yes and if there is no rotor pole in the vicinity to bother it, then it defaults to the current which was flowing through it the moment it was frozen with Liquid Nitrogen or Helium (I think you call it the "conserved value" of flux).

— and if the external flux crosses the conserved value, the current polarity flips. Each adjustment resists the rotor’s motion, manifesting as drag.
You need to analyze this point more precisely.
Let's say that the "conserved value" of flux is 1 Weber.
And the undisturbed coil needs 10kA to maintain it.

Then if an external flux source comes around and tries to push -1 Webers through the ideal coil (tries to reverse the flux), then the coil responds with 20kA of internal current (no current reversal !), which generates 2 Webers of internal flux and the total flux stays constant at 1 Weber again because 2 + (-1) = 1.  This means repulsion.

However when an external flux source comes around and tries to push 2 Webers through the ideal coil (flux in the same direction), then the coil responds with -10kA of internal current (current reverses), which generates -1 Weber of internal flux and the total flux stays constant at 1 Weber because (-1) + 2 = 1.  This means repulsion, also.  An ideal coil always repels external flux.  If it didn't, then the flux linkage would change.

For the sake of easier analysis it is better to start with a "conserved value" of flux equal to zero and the undisturbed coil current also zero.
Then an approaching pole of any polarity will induce nonzero current (reaching iMAX at TDC) and will be repelled from the coil during the entire approach.  When the same pole starts departing, it will also be repelled from the coil as the coil reduces its current from iMAX to zero. 
When the pole gets away, the coil returns to its undisturbed state, i.e. conserved value of flux equal to zero and the coil's current also zero.  That is why I cal the QLE a "net zero" effect.
   

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...besides, why are we shorting the super coil???
Because a shorted coil is a happy coil  :)

Shorting a coil preserves its energy.
Shorting a capacitor dumps its energy.
Shorting a battery dumps its energy.

Opening a coil dumps its energy.
Opening a capacitor preserves its energy.
Opening a battery preserves its energy.

like saying the cap to cap losses are because of resistance. another useless circuit. but that 50% loss is not due to resistive loss.  ideal, same loss.
Coils and capacitors do not act the same way.  In fact they act in opposite ways.
Resistance is a killer of coil's stored energy and a saviour of capacitor's stored energy.
cap-to-cap energy transfers and coil-to-coil energy transfers are both 50% efficient because one meets its own match.
cap-to-coil energy transfers are almost 100% efficient because of their complementarity.

why would we not use that possitive and then negative output from the magnet pass??
Because coils are current sources (while capacitors are voltage sources).
The current in an ideal shorted coil does not reverse as a pole approaches it and departs it.  It only decreases to its original value before the approach.

Saying that the magnet approaching the face of a super coil begins something that cant be stopped is silly.
It can be stopped.  Just move the magnet away and the current will stop ....or add resistance.  Resistance dissipates energy stored in a coil.  The higher this resistance the faster the dissipation.
I find it amazing that you don't find it silly that a once-charged capacitor retains its charge, by the same token.

if the approaching magnet sees a Lenz repel effect on approach, and the coils condition cannot be changed from there, then id say the magnet could never make it past or to TDC..
It couldn't if the magnet had its OD equal to the ID of the ideal shorted coil and its flux could not make a detour and was forced down the throat of the coil  ...but when the magnet's flux can make a detour, then it does and the magnet passes (albeit with repulsion), while the total flux through an ideal shorted coil is preserved.  The detour usually looks like the flux is getting bent/distorted.  Look at this simulation to observe it. 
You probably wonder, whether the magnet could be forced through that superconducting ring. The answer is yes as long as the magnet is smaller than the ring and sufficiently heavy or pushed.  If the loop became superconductive while the magnet was inside the coil (or nearby) then after the passage of that magnet through the ring and moving it far away, the current induced in the would circulate indefinitely until the magnet (or another one like it) comes back and threads the ring again.  See this.
   
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Quote- "I agree, but an approaching and departing pole of a motor is not an AC drive."
"No flux nor current polarity reversal happens when a pole approaches and departs an ideal coil."


Rotational induced EMF is governed by motion of the field relative to conductor orientation.

Rotor induction (moving magnet/rotor): The reversal isn’t caused by resistive decay, and it’s not about a weakening field either — it’s built into the geometry of a rotor cutting the coil. A single‑polarity magnet sweeps across one side of the coil on approach and the opposite side on departure, and those conductors run in opposite directions around the loop. That change in which leg is being cut flips the terminal polarity, even though the magnet pole itself never changes. In a superconducting coil there are no resistive losses, but the induced output still reverses because the conductor orientation and motion dictate the sign — not decay.

Transformer induction (time‑varying flux in a core): In a transformer, reversal comes from the flux itself rising and falling in time. The primary winding drives a sinusoidal flux in the core, and the secondary sees that flux linkage increase, then decrease, so the induced voltage follows the derivative of that sinusoidal flux. In other words, transformer reversal is about the time profile of flux amplitude, while rotor reversal is about geometry — which coil wall is being cut and the winding orientation.


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Rotational induction polarity is cutting of conductor directions, not growth / decay.
But the external flux from the rotor's pole is unable to cut the windings of an ideal shorted coil.  So all of your arguments that rely on flux cutting the coil go out of the window.
The only way an external flux can cut the coil is when the internally generated flux is weakened by resistance an unable to oppose the external flux completely.


P.S.
An ideal transformer is capable of transforming direct current  :o
   

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hey flood. 
that vid is a perfect example of what i explained earlier. beautiful representation. but, with the coil setup of the tpu bottom ring coils cannot accomplish that.  the arrangement of where the poles of the windings with only 2  phased inputs cannot even drive that motor presented earlier.  that motor is an altered example that i cannot accept in this case of the tpu windings. that is my arguement.

and one more thing, the vid verp has presented of the magnet dropped above the super ring, also had another example showing a heavier magnet drop, of which the mag does fall through and the super ring does reverse its current. so his proofs shown, in sim mind you, does not hold water here.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=D-nAh9TMM30

mags
   

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and one more thing, the vid verp has presented of the magnet dropped above the super ring, also had another example showing a heavier magnet drop, of which the mag does fall through and the super ring does reverse its current. so his proofs shown, in sim mind you, does not hold water here.

https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=yMg6j-UoUfo
Good catch, but that minuscule current movement after the exit was is not the way an ideal ring behaves.
I was corresponding about this with prof.Belcher and he acknowledged that this ring was simulated as very low resistance - not superconducting, (because his software could not handle dividing by zero), so the current in it has dissipated a smidge during the fall.

Like I wrote previously, if you allow the resistance to dissipate the current that was induced in the ring by the magnet on approach then it will start with zero current afterwards and upon departure of the magnet, the current will reverse, but that is ONLY because it was allowed to decay earlier.
   
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Quote-  But the external flux from the rotor's pole is unable to cut the windings of an ideal shorted coil.

I really don't have time to debate much more what a superconductive coil will do. From what I gather, you are now suggesting that flux cutting vanishes in an ideal coil.  I think my point stands, in any normal setup "Lenz Drag" is an appripriate description where a magnets motion is opposed on the entry and exit while passing a coil.

This convo would have been better to place in it's own topic as it was initiated when Verps challenged what I consider a well established concep and has little to do with my Orion presentation.





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Jim Mac - Owner of Mooker.Com Opensource Free Energy Forum
   

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From what I gather, you are now suggesting that flux cutting vanishes in an ideal coil. 
Not only do I suggest it but I claim it.

I think my point stands, in any normal setup "Lenz Drag" is an appripriate description...
It isn't. The Lenz Effect is not responsible for the drag.  The resistance is.

where a magnets motion is opposed on the entry and exit while passing a coil.
That is what happens in resistive coils.  For 1 pole, drag is the difference of the force during approach minus the force during departure integrated over the two half cycles ...and it depends on resistance like this:



As you can see, the drag disappears with no resistance.  Do you think that the Lenz Effects stops working when it is deprived of resistance ?

This convo would have been better to place in it's own topic as it was initiated when Verps challenged what I consider a well established concept
Rather a well established misconception.

I really don't have time to debate much more what a superconductive coil will do.
It is not only about superconductive phenomena.  It is also about fast and very inductive phenomena if you were paying attention.
You can ignore what I have to teach you but physics will not ignore you.
   

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If that's the case then the magnet should simply pass the super coil with no impediment!!!!!
just when i thought i was done with this, but i gotta do it...

WHAT???

if thats the case then the magnet should simply pass the super coil with no impediment!!!!!

NO RESISTANCE, NO DRAG???? :-\   UGGHH said charlie brown

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As you can see, the drag disappears with resistance.  Do you think that the Lenz Effects stops working when it is deprived of resistance ?


Sweeping a single pole magnet across the full face of a coil produces a full sinewave.  Please show me a live demonstration of you getting a single polarity output from a full sweep past the face of a coil with a magnet.   

GOD I hope you can show me how to do that!  I would have had OU years ago if it did what your pic shows


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Jim Mac - Owner of Mooker.Com Opensource Free Energy Forum
   

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just when i thought i was done with this, but i gotta do it...
WHAT???
If that's the case then the magnet should simply pass the super coil with no impediment!!!!!
...and it does pass without any energy loss OVER THE ENTIRE CYCLE.
It is not so over half a cycle, where you observe the motion on approach being impeded but you completely ignore that the motion on departure is accelerated by the repulsion.
Over the entire cycle you have to integrate these two forces ...and when you do you get zero.

Do you even read what I post ?

...drag is the difference of the force during approach minus the force during departure integrated over the two half cycles ...and it depends on resistance like this:


NO RESISTANCE, NO DRAG???? :-\   UGGHH said charlie brown
Can you read the axis labels on a graph ?
It clearly states "Mechanical Enegy Loss (Drag) over 1 cycle".
...but no, you don't pay attention and then shoot out this knee-jerk response to me because you saw a magnet slow down for half-a-cycle when going through a super ring.
While completely ignoring the second cycle in the energy balance sheet.
   
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